ENT Previous Year Question Papers
302001
38 papers · MBBS · previous-year papers
- KNRUHS MBBS ENT April 2026 (MB2019123 Regular)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · ENT
- NTRUHS MBBS ENT January 2026 (CBME)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT February 2026 (1034 CBME)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KNRUHS MBBS ENT June 2025 (MB2019123 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KNRUHS MBBS ENT November 2025 (MB2019123 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · ENT
- NTRUHS MBBS ENT April 2025 (SET-D CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT April 2025 (1034 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT January 2025 (1034 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT November 2025 (1034 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT October 2025 (1090 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - May 2025 (318001 2019 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - August 2025 (302001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - March 2025 (302001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - May 2025 (315001 2019 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- NTRUHS MBBS ENT January 2024 (15A03101 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · ENT
- NTRUHS MBBS ENT April 2024 (15A03101 SET-A Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT February 2024 (1034 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT February 2024 (1090 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - August 2024 (302001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - February 2024 (302001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - February 2024 (315001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - June 2024 (315001 2019 Only)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT February 2023 (1034 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT May 2023 (1034 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT February 2023 (1090 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT July 2023 (1090 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - February 2023 (302001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - February 2023 (315001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - August 2023 (302001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - August 2023 (315001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - April 2022 (302001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - August 2022 (302001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT March 2021 (1090 RS3)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - January 2021 (302001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - May 2021 (302001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - December 2021 (302001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
- RGUHS MBBS ENT November 2020 (1090 RS3)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · ENT
- KUHS MBBS ENT Previous Question Paper - January 2020 (302001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · ENT
Showing 20 of 684 questions
Which of the following statement is false a. The inner hair cells receive 95% of the afferent innervations from the cochlear nerve b. The stereocilia act as mechanical transducers c. There are equal numbers of outer and inner hair cells d. Endolymph has an electrolyte composition similar to intracellular fluid (High potassium and low sodium ions)
One of the following is not a objective test of hearing a. Evoked response audiometry b. Impedance audiometry c. Visual reinforcement audiometry d. Otoacoustic emission
Which intrinsic laryngeal muscle is responsible for vocal opening a. Thyrohyoid muscle b. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle c. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle cord d. Cricothyroid muscle
Mouse nibbed appearance of vocal cords seen in a. Laryngeal malignancy b. Tuberculosis c. Primary fungal Laryngitis d. Laryngeal Papilloma
All are anteriorly placed sinuses except a. Frontal b. Maxillary c. Ethmoidal d. Sphenoidal
All are anti tubercular drugs except a. Rifampicin b. Streptomycin c. INH d. Nimesulide
Sjogren’s syndrome — all are present except a. Kerato conjunctivitis sicca b. Sialorrhea c. Dry mouth d. Joint pains
Reed Sternberg cells are seen in a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. Tuberculosis d. Ca pyriform fossa
Greenish discharge is seen in a. Staphylococcal infection b. Streptococcal infection c. Pseudomonas infection d. Bacteroides infection
All are antihistamines except a. Hydroxyzine b. Levocetirizine c. Chlorpheniramine d. Montelukast
All the following are nasal sprays except a. Fluticasone b. Budesonide c. Mometasone d. Salbutamol
Causes for nasal polyposis include a. Allergic rhinitis b. Cystic fibrosis c. Aspirin intolerance d. All of the above
Premalignant lesions are a. Leukoplakia b. Erythroplakia c. None of the above d. Both
Potť's puffy tumour occurs in a. Ethmoidal sinus b. Maxillary sinus c. Sphenoid sinus d. Frontal sinus
Area of epistaxis is known as a. Keisselbach's plexus b. Auerbach plexus c. Myenteric plexus d. Solar plexus
In diagnostic nasal endoscopy how many passes are there a. 1 b. 2 с. 3 d. 5
Tests for CSF leak are a. B-2 transferrin b. CSF fluid analogies c. Cistemogram d. All of the above
AS tympanogram is seen in a. Serous otitis media b. Otosclerosis c. Cholesteatoma d. ET disfunction
Which of the following causes of opening of eustachian tube a. Salpingopharyngeus b. Tensor Veli palatini c. Levator Veli palatini d. None
Caldwell’s view is done for a. Sphenoid b. Ethmoid c. Maxillary d. Frontal
All of the following are granulomatous condition of nose except a. Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma (JNA) b. Rhinoscleroma c. Syphilis d. TB
Tornwaldt's cyst is a. Laryngeal cyst b. Nasopharyngeal cyst c. Ear cyst d. None
Which nerve supply the Stapedius Muscle? a) 7th CN b) 5th CN c) 9th CN d) 12th CN
Which is not a complication of ASOM ? a) TM Perforation b) Adhesive Otitis Media c) Mastoiditis d) Facial Nerve Palsy
Which is not seen in Lateral Sinus Thrombosis? a) Positive Tobey - Ayer test b) Diplopia c) Greisenger sign d) Picket Fence Fever
Regarding cholesteatoma, which of the following is true? a) It consists of squamous epithelium b) It is a malignant tumour. c) It should be left untreated d) It may metastasise to distant sites
Stapes footplate covers: a) Round the window b) Oval window c) Sinus tympani d) Aditus ad antrum
Treatment of choice for glue ear which presented for 6 months is a) Conservative b) Adenoidectomy c) Myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion d) Myringotomy with a cold knife
All are true for Gradenigo's syndrome except a) It is associated with conductive hearing loss b) It is seen in petrositis c) It leads to involvement of the 5th and 6th cranial nerves d) It is characterized by retro-orbital pain
Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant otitis externa? a) Mitotic figures are high b) Caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa c) Patients are usually immune compromised d) Presence of granulation tissue
A 15 year old boy has a unilateral nasal obstruction, mass in the cheek and recurrent expistaxis, the diagnosis is: a) Inverted papilloma nose b) Maxillary sinusitis c) Bleeding tendency d) Angiofibroma
What is true about lymphatic drainage of the vocal cords? a) It has poor lymphatic drainage b) It has rich lymphatic drainage c) It has no lymphatic drainage d) It has lymphatic drainage only in the anterior half
Best radiological test for maxillary sinus is: a) Occipito-frontal view b) Occipito-mental view c) Lateral view d) Submento-vertical view
All of the following are causes of bilateral nasal obstruction except: a) Adenoids b) Allergic rhinitis c) Antrochoanal polyp d) Ethmoidal polyp
All of the following are complications of sinusitis except: a) Cavernous sinus septic thrombosis b) Meningitis c) Toxic shock syndrome d) Glomerulonephritis
All are true about antrochoanal polyps Except: a) Unilateral and single b) Grows backwards to the choana c) Avulsion is the treatment of choice d) Common in children
All are true about epistaxis EXCEPT: a) Atrophic rhinitis may be a cause b) Pregnancy can be a cause c) May occur in a menstruating female d) May occur in allergic rhinitis
Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in a) Small atrophic tonsils b) Quinsy c) Poliomyelitis epidemic d) Tonsillolith
Otosclerosis mostly affects a) Malleus 2) Stapes c) Incus d) Tympanic membrane
Which is not a premalignant condition? a) Leukoplakia b) Erythroplakia c) Tonsilolith d) Submucous Fibrosis
Rhinophyma.
Mucocele most frequently affects the a) Maxillary sinus b) Ethmoidal sinus c) Frontal sinus d) Sphenoidal sinus
Secondary haemorrhage following tonsillectomy is due to a) Sepsis of the tonsillar fossa b) Injury to the tonsillar pillars c) Slipping of ligatures d) Hypertension
Which of the following is not a hyaline cartilage a) Epiglottis b) Thyroid c) Cricoid d) Arytenoid
Frey's syndrome is due to a) Gustatory lacrimation b) Gustatory sweating c) Hemifacial spasm d) Blepharospasm
Sensory nerve supply of middle ear cavity is provided by a) Facial nerve b) Glossopharyngeal nerve c) Vagus nerve d) Trigeminal nerve
Which of the following is not true regarding Eustachian tube a) Provides communication between middle ear and nasopharynx b) 36mm in length c) Lateral 1/3rd is bony and medial 2/3rd is cartilaginous d) Remains open at rest
Hoarseness is the earliest symptom of carcinoma of a) Glottis b) Supra-glottis c) Subglottis d) Hypopharynx
A male patient of 30 yrs presented with complaints of clear watery discharge from the right nasal cavity after head injury which increased on bending forward: a) What is the diagnosis. b) Enumerate the signs and symptoms of this condition c) Explain the investigations. d) How do you treat this condition
Complications of Tonsillectomy.
Consent for Tracheostomy.
Causes of unilateral nasal obstruction.
Rhinolalia Aperta,
Topo diagnostic tests for facial nerve.
Principle mechanism responsible for self-cleansing property of the external auditory canal is a) Ceruminous gland secretion b) Outward epithelial migration c) Vibration of tympanic membrane d) Movement of temporomandibular joint
A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent Profuse, non-foul smelling ear discharge from her left ear for the past eighteen months without any pain in the ear aggravated on exposure to cold. On otoscopic examination, a persistent perforation in the antero inferior part of the tympanic membrane is noted, and the middle ear appears clear without any masses. Which of the following diagnosis best describes this patient's condition? a) Otitis Externa b) Acute labyrinthitis c) Meniere’s Disease d) Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM) Tubotympanic Type
Vasomotor rhinitis is due to a) Rebound phenomenon of decongestants b) Allergy c) Bacterial infection of nasal mucosa d) Autonomic imbalance of nasal mucosa
Which of the following best describes a characteristic of the dissection and snare method for tonsillectomy? a) Utilizes electrocautery for tonsillar tissue vaporization b) Employs high-frequency ultrasound to fragment the tonsil c) Involves blunt dissection to free the tonsil followed by the use of a snare for removal d) Requires a laser to ablate the tonsillar tissue
A septate hyphae causing fungal sinusitis is a) Aspergillus b) Mucor c) Rhizopus d) Candida
A 38-year-old woman presents to the ENT clinic with symptoms of nasal obstruction and a sensation of nasal fullness for several months. On endoscopic examination, multiple glistening, greyish, grape-like masses are noted hanging into the middle meatus. On performing probe Test, Probe is able to be passed on all the sides around the mass. What is the diagnosis and which of the following surgical interventions is most commonly utilized for definitive treatment? a) Antrochoanal Polyp - Caldwell-Luc operation b) Turbinate Hypertrophy - Septoplasty c) Ethmoidal Polyp - Functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS) d) Adenoid Hypertrophy - Rhinoplasty
Patterson-Brown-Kelly (Plummer-Vinson) syndrome is linked especially with a) Posterior-pharyngeal wall carcinoma b) Post cricoid carcinoma c) Pyriform sinus carcinoma d) Lymphoma of hypopharynx
Which of the following is NOT a recognized physiological constriction of the oesophagus? a) Cricopharyngeal constriction b) Aortic constriction c) Constriction at the diaphragmatic hiatus d) Constriction at the angle of Louis
Name the investigation using contrast colour lighting to differentiate malignant epithelial cells from normal cells a) Stroboscopy b) Narrow band imaging c) Direct laryngoscopy d) Videolaryngoscopy
A-B gap is sign of a) Perilymph fistula b) Meniere's disease c) Stapedial otosclerosis d) vestibular schwannoma
Exenteration of all accessible mastoid air cells and preserving the posterior meatal wall is a) Radical mastoidectomy b) Schwartz procedure c) Tympanoplasty d) Modified radical mastoidectomy
Complications of acute mastoiditis a) Facial palsy b) Sub periosteal abscess c) Labyrinthitis d) All of the above
Pneumatised enlarged middle turbinate is called as a) Concha bullosa b) Haller’s cell c) Onodi cell d) Ringertz tumour
Facial asymmetry low set ears pre auricular tags present in a) Goldenhar syndrome b) Down syndrome c) Stickler syndrome d) Apert syndrome
Schirmer’s test in lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy is to assess a) Salivation b) Lacrimation c) Taste sensation d) Stapedial reflex
Concha bullosa is a) Enlarged inferior turbinate b) Enlarged supraorbital cell c) Pneumatized middle turbinate d) Enlarged Haller cell
Dohlman's procedure is done for a) Eagle's syndrome b) Zenker's diverticulum c) Palate repair d) Tracheal repair
Preferred treatment for unilateral hearing loss with external auditory canal atresia is a) Cochlear implant b) Bone anchored hearing aid (BAHA) c) Conventional hearing aid d) Hearing aid with CROS (cross routing of signals)
Sialolithiasis is most commonly seen in a) Parotid gland b) Submandibular salivary gland c) Sublingual salivary gland d) Other minor salivary glands
A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of sneezing, watery nasal discharge, and nasal itchiness that seem to worsen during the spring season. She notes that these episodes have been recurring annually for the past few years and are often accompanied by itchy, watery eyes. Based on her symptoms, which of the following laboratory investigations would most likely confirm the suspected diagnosis and identify the allergen responsible for her symptoms? a) Complete blood count (CBC) with a focus on Neutrophilia b) Sputum culture to identify bacterial pathogens c) Skin prick testing with common allergens d) Chest X-ray
Which type of epithelium lines the middle ear cleft? a) Transitional b) Squamous c) Columnar d) Cuboidal
Siegalization is useful in following conditions EXCEPT a) To check for tympanic membrane mobility b) To elicit fistula test c) To remove foreign bodies in external ear d) To instill topical ear medicines
Most common site for origin of nasopharyngeal carcinoma a) Nasal septum b) Vault of nasopharynx c) Fossa of rosenmuller d) Antero-superior wall
A young female had conductive hearing loss with intact tympanic membrane. Discuss the possible etiologies. Write in detail about clinical features, investigations, types and management of Otosclerosis.
Discuss the etiology clinical features and management of primary Atrophic Rhinitis. Write briefly on Nasal Myiasis.
What are the major and minor symptoms to diagnose sinusitis. Describe the clinical features, investigations, endoscopic and external approaches in management of chronic maxillary sinusitis.
List the causes of stridor. Discuss the types, procedure and post operative care of Tracheostomy.
Stapedial Otosclerosis.
Non-malignant lesions of Larynx.
Intra cranial complications of Chronic otitis media.
Explain clinical features and management of vocal cord nodules
Etiopathogenesis of Cholesteatoma.
Clinical features of Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma.
Trotter’s triad.
Draw a labelled diagram of Tympanic Membrane.
Caloric tests.
Difference between Ethmoidal and Antrochoanal Polyps.
Ohngren’s classification.
Laryngomalacia
Adenoid facies
Oral Submucous Fibrosis
Weber’s test
Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
Multiple response type questions. Read the statements and mark the most appropriate answer
Samter’s triad includes 1) Bronchial asthma 2) Bronchiectasis 3) Aspirin sensitivity 4) Nasal polypi a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 4
Features of rhinoscleroma are 1) Woody nose 2) Peg shaped incisors 3) Interstitial keratitis 4) Russel bodies a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 4 c) 1 and 4 d) 3 and 4
Features of atrophic rhinitis include: 1) Foul-smelling nasal discharge 2) Crusting in the nasal cavity 3) Nasal polypi 4) Widening of nasal cavity a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) All are correct
Clinical features of single sided acoustic neuroma include 1) Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss 2) Tinnitus 3) Reduced corneal sensitivity 4) Acute episode of vertigo a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) All are correct
Risk factors for paranasal sinus malignancies are: 1) Exposure to wood dust 2) Human papilloma virus 3) Smoking 4) Diabetes mellitus a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) All are correct
Vasomotor rhinitis.
Aetiology, clinical features and management of acute epiglottitis
Two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below.
Assertion (A): Epiglottitis in children is a medical emergency. Reason (R): It can rapidly lead to airway obstruction. a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Assertion (A): In traumatic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks, CSF stays in centre, while blood gravitates to periphery during hand-kerchief test Reason (R): Beta two transferrin estimation is the pathognomonic investigation in CSF leaks a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Assertion (A): Some cases of Meniere’s disease show Tullio’s phenomenon. Reason (R): It is due to distended utricle lying against the stapes foot plate a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Assertion (A): Deviated nasal septum (DNS) can lead to recurrent sinusitis. Reason (R): DNS causes obstruction of sinus drainage pathways. a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Assertion (A): Mucocoele of frontal sinus can displace the eyeball forward, downward and laterally Reason (R): Mucocoele of frontal sinus usually presents in the superomedial quadrant of orbit a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Pre auricular sinus
Physiology of hearing.
Indications for Tracheostomy
Vocal fold paralysis – types and treatment
Draw and label Organ of Corti
Draw and label Lateral wall of nose.
Draw and label Nasal septum and its blood supply
Draw and label Tympanic membrane.
Rhinoscleroma – clinical feature and management.
Draw and label Membranous labyrinth
Tuning fork tests
Puberphonia
Radical mastoidectomy
Malignant otitis externa.
Rhinolith
Otitis media with effusion.
Noise induced hearing loss
Treatment of otosclerosis
Gradenigo syndrome
Two types of nasal bone fracture
Atrophic Rhinitis-clinical features and management.
Two causes of referred otalgia
Antro choanal polyp
Frey’s syndrome
Boundaries of Mac Ewan’s triangle
Splaying apart of Internal and External carotid arteries on angiogram in cases of carotid body tumor of the neck is a. Lyre's sign b. Lhermitte's sign c. Lera's sign d. None of the above
A 60 years old man, who is a smoker and alcoholic for the past 40 years, presented to the ENT OPD with complaints of progressive, unremitting dysphonia of three months duration and noisy breathing for the past 5 days. Answer the following: • What is your provisional diagnosis • What is the immediate intervention to be planned • What are the other clinical features of this condition • What are the investigations to be done in this patient and mention the expected findings in each • Discuss the treatment options for this patient
Discuss about the clinical presentation, investigations and management of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
A forty-year-old female patient came with complaints of bilateral ear discharge, mucoid type, increases with bouts of upper respiratory tract infection and associated with reduced hearing on both sides. Tympanic membranes show bilateral central perforation. There is active discharge and no mastoid tenderness. Rinne’s test is negative bilaterally, Weber’s test is lateralized to left side and absolute bone conduction test is normal on both sides. a) What is your provisional complete diagnosis b) Describe the aetiopathology of this condition. c) Write relevant investigations with expected findings. d) How will you treat this condition. e) Discuss the complications of this condition, if untreated.
A 24-year-old male presents to the OPD with fever, otalgia and swelling over the right mastoid. He also gives history of foul smelling scanty right ear discharge for the last three years. On examination there is a retraction pocket in the right tympanic membrane with whitish flakes and a boggy swelling in the right postaural region. a) What is your provisional diagnosis b) What is the immediate intervention to be planned c) What are the other clinical features of this condition d) What are the investigations to be done in this patient e) Discuss the treatment options for this patient
All are true about Limen Nasi, except a. This area is the greatest constriction of respiratory tract b. Its superior and lateral boundary caudal margin of upper lateral cartilage c. Absent upper lateral cartilage results in wide nasal valve d. The nasal valve can be widened by spreader grafts
A 55 years old man, known smoker and alcoholic came to the casualty with stridor. He also gives a history of hoarseness for the last three months. Answer the following: • What is the most probable diagnosis • What are the causes of stridor in an adult patient • What are the investigations to be done in this patient and mention the expected findings in each • Discuss the treatment options for this patient
A 30-year-old female presented with bilateral nasal obstruction and anosmia. On examination Bilateral nasal cavity widened with foul smelling crusts. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Enumerate the etiopathogenesis c) Describe the clinical features d) Write a note on management of this disease
14-year-old boy presented with right sided nasal obstruction with Profuse Epistaxis since 6 months a) What is the probable diagnosis b) What is the etiopathogenesis of this disease c) Enumerate the clinical features d) What is Holman miller sign e) Describe the management in detail
A 28-year-old female presented with gradually progressive bilateral conductive hearing loss aggravated during pregnancy. On examination bilateral tympanic membrane intact. On audiological evaluation dip was seen at 2 KHz. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Describe the etiopathogenesis and clinical features c) Mention three differential diagnosis for the same d) What is Paracusis Willisii e) Write a note management of this disease
A 60 years old diabetic patient presented to the ENT casualty with complaints of severe pain in the throat, odynophagia, dysphagia and fever for the past 5 days. He gives a history of having a chicken bone getting stuck in his throat 7 days back. • What is the most probable diagnosis • Mention two relevant investigations and the expected findings in each • What are the main etiological factors predisposing to this condition • What are the main complications of this condition • How will you treat this patient
Which of the following arteries does not directly supply the tonsil a. Dorsal lingual arteries b. Tonsillar artery c. Maxillary artery d. Ascending palatine artery
A 13 years old boy came to the OPD with torrential bleeding from the right nasal cavity. He gives a history of a similar episode of profuse, unprovoked bleeding from the right nasal cavity 6 months back, when the bleeding stopped by itself. Post nasal examination revealed a smooth, lobulated pink swelling blocking the choana. Answer the following: • What is the most probable diagnosis • Discuss the etiopathogenesis of the condition • Mention four relevant investigations and the expected findings in each • Discuss the treatment options for this patient
A 40-year-old diabetic female presents to the OPD with fever, swelling of the floor of the mouth and difficulty in opening the mouth. She also gives history of undergoing root canal treatment for right lower jaw dental caries a week back. On examination there is a woody hard swelling in the submandibular and submental area of the neck with trismus a) What is your provisional diagnosis b) What is the immediate intervention to be planned c) What are the other clinical features of this condition d) What are the investigations to be done in this patient e) Discuss the treatment options for this patient
A 17-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with profuse epistaxis. He also gives history of nasal obstruction since two months. Nasal endoscopy shows a reddish fleshy mass in the nasopharynx a) What is your provisional diagnosis b) What is the immediate intervention to be planned c) What are the other clinical features of this condition d) What are the investigations to be done in this patient e) Discuss the treatment options for this patient
Read the following clinical presentation and answer the following. A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of discharge from the right ear which is scanty, blood stained and foul smelling. Examination of the ear revealed an attic perforation. Tuning fork tests revealed a conductive hearing loss in the right ear. a) What is your diagnosis b) Discuss the aetiopathology of this disease c) Describe the clinical features of this condition d) Describe the investigations performed for this disease e) Discuss the treatment of this condition
a) Draw and label neat diagram of osteomeatal complex. b) Clinical signs and investigations of chronic rhinosinusitis c) What are the principles of Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery (FESS). Enumerate the steps of FESS d) What are the complications of FESS
A 25-year-old male presented with history of headache, fever, projectile vomiting since two days. Past history of foul smelling, blood stained left ear discharge since 10 years. No history of diabetes mellitus. On examination: Left ear: scanty purulent discharge present, neck rigidity present. a) What is provisional diagnosis. Substantiate your diagnosis. b) How do you confirm the diagnosis. c) Enumerate FOUR causes of purulent foul smelling ear discharge. d) How do you manage this patient.
A 52-year-old male presented to emergency department with severe nasal and postnasal bleeding. He is a known case of hypertension and is on irregular medications. a) What is the first line of management b) What are the investigations to be done c) Write other management options d) Enumerate four general causes of nasal bleeding
Malignant otitis externa - etiology, clinical features and treatment
Quinsy – etiology, clinical features and treatment.
'Crus commune' - is formed by a. The ampullated ends of posterior and superior canals b. The nonampullated ends of horizontal and superior canals c. The nonampullated ends of posterior and superior canals d. The ampullated ends of horizontal and superior canals
Treatment of atrophic Rhinitis
a) Describe the physiology of Deglutition b) Enumerate the causes of dysphagia c) Write a note on Plummer Vinson Syndrome
a) Enumerate the causes of vertigo b) Describe the etiopathogenesis and clinical features of Meniere’s disease c) Write a note on management of Meniere’s disease
a) What are the types of Stridor b) Enumerate the causes of stridor c) Write a short note on Laryngomalacia
Invasive fungal sinusitis.
Unpaired laryngeal cartilages
Atrophic rhinitis – clinical features and treatment
Bell’s palsy – clinical features and treatment
(a) Enumerate four causes for unilateral nasal obstruction (b) Discuss the aetiopathology of deviated nasal septum (c) Describe the clinical features of deviated nasal septum (d) Describe the treatment of deviated nasal septum. Add a note on complications of submucosal resection of septum (2+4+4+5)
Symptoms and signs of Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.
Diagnosis and treatment of CSF rhinorrhea.
Cerebrospinal Fluid rhinorrhea - diagnosis and treatment
Discuss the differential diagnoses of membrane over the palatine tonsil with its distinguishing features
Chronic Sinusitis – Diagnosis and treatment
Infections from the parotid gland can spread to the ear through this deficiency a. Fissure of Santorini b. Foramen of Huschke c. Stylomastoid foramen d. Sinus of Morgagni
Hearing evaluation of a deaf child.
Anatomy of Middle ear with diagram
Anatomy of olfactory pathway
Briefly discuss the clinical features and management of Allergic Rhinitis
Lateral wall of nose.
Treatment of Bell’s palsy
Rhinosporidiosis – clinical features, diagnosis and treatment
Retropharyngeal abscess – clinical features, diagnosis and treatment
Physiology of swallowing
Differences between mucosal and squamosal type Chronic suppurative otitis media.
Enumerate congenital causes of stridor and its management.
Ludwig’s angina.
Clinical Scenario: A 40-year-old uncontrolled diabetic male presented with headache, facial swelling and nasal obstruction for last two weeks. On examination black necrotic tissue was noted in the nasal cavity.Imaging shows bony erosion and orbital extension.
What is the major side effect of Amphotericin B a) Nasal bleeding c) Nephrotoxicity b) Skin rashes d) Oral ulceration
What is the most likely diagnosis. a) Bacterial sinusitis c) Wegener’s granulomatosis b) Mucormycosis d) Sinonasal carcinoma
What is the cornerstone of management. a) Antibacterial therapy c) Radiation therapy b) Surgical debridement and antifungal therapy d) Cytotoxic drugs
Primary drug of choice of this condition a) Liposomal Amphotericin B c) Rituximab b) Amoxycillin+ Clavulanic acid d) Cisplatin
Which of the following investigation specifically lead to the diagnosis. a) Biopsy with Potassium hydroxide staining b) Bacterial culture and sensitivity test c) X-ray of nose and paranasal sinuses d) Cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies (cANCA)
A 2-year-old child presented to the casualty with complaints of fever, loud barking cough, stridor and laboured breathing.
Which of the following organism is the most likely cause. a) Parainfluenza virus b) Staphylococcus c) Herpes virus d) H. Influenzae type B
Which of the following feature is seen in the above condition. a) Edema of the epiglottis c) Narrowing of subglottis due to edema b) Vocal cord palsy d) Turban epiglottis
What is the most probable diagnosis. a) Epiglottitis b) Croup c) Subglottic stenosis d) Unilateral choanal atresia
X-ray of the neck shows the following feature a) Thumb sign b) Tripod sign c) Steeple sign d) Homan miller sign
Which of the following is the initial treatment option for this child. a) Corticosteroids + hydration c) Antiviral drugs b) I.V. Antibiotics + Analgesics d) Anti-fungal agents
Clinical features, sites of leakage with methods of localization and treatment of cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea
An adult presented with acute onset dysphagia, oedema of the uvula and palate, medially pushed tonsil and trismus is most likely to have a. Parapharyngeal abscess b. Acute retropharyngeal c. Quinsy d. Chronic retropharyngeal abscess
Discuss treatment of otogenic facial palsy
Vocal cord Paralysis - types, causes and management
Etiopathogenesis and clinical features of chronic suppurative otitis media
Etiopathogenesis and management of Retropharyngeal Abscess
Organ of corti.
Aetiopathology, clinical features, and management of noise induced hearing loss
Subglottic stenosis.
Enlist differences between antrochoanal polyp and ethmoidal polyp.
Preauricular sinus.
Caldwell-Luc operation
A 4 year old boy came to emergency department with foreign body aspiration. a) Write the prominent symptoms and signs when foreign body lodges at larynx and trachea. b) What is stridor. Classify it. How it differs from stertor. c) Write the procedures of immediate airway management. d) Complications of foreign body aspiration if not treated. e) Discuss definitive treatment options of this patient.
A 35-year-old female patient presents with complaints of discharge in the left ear since childhood. The discharge is scanty, purulent and foul smelling. Otoscopic examination revealed a posterosuperior marginal perforation with whitish flakes in the ear. a) What is your diagnosis. b) Etiopathogenesis of this condition. c) Enumerate the complications associated with this disease. d) Describe the surgical management of this disease.
Benign lesions of the larynx
Differences between the ethmoidal and antrochoanal polypi
Adenoidectomy Operation
A 40 years old female-has dysphagia for fluids and can swallow solids relatively well. This suggests a. An obstructing tumour b. A neurogenic impairment c. A Zenker diverticulum d. A Stenosis of the oesophagus
Management of secondary hemorrhage following tonsillectomy.
Etiopathogenesis and management of Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Etiology and management of vocal cord polyp
Anatomy and course of Facial Nerve
Investigations and management of otosclerosis.
Clinical features and treatment of Otosclerosis
Tympanoplasty operation
Mastoidectomy surgery
Aetiology, clinical features, and management of left vocal cord paralysis.
Blood supply of tonsil.
Cardinal signs of chronic tonsillitis.
Causes, investigations and management of dysphagia.
Previously healthy 40 year old male presented with unexplained unilateral rapid loss of hearing all at once. a) Give your diagnosis by defining it. b) Describe the aetiological factors. c) Write relevant investigations with expected findings. d) What are the good and bad prognostic factors. e) Elaborate the principles of treatment.
A 60-year-old male patient who is a known case of hypertension on treatment come to emergency room with nasal bleeding since 2 hours. On examination of the nasal cavity there is active bleeding in right nasal cavity. a) What is your diagnosis. b) Describe the etiopathogenesis of this condition. c) How will you manage this patient in the emergency room.
Draw and label Anatomy of nasal septum
A 60-year-old male patient presented with nasal obstruction, nasal discharge and postnasal drip associated with headache and facial pain on and off for a duration of 3 months,What is your diagnosis a. Subacute Rhinosinusitis b. Recurrent Acute Rhinosinusitis c. Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis d. Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Draw a diagram of left tympanic membrane
Write a short note on Quinsy
Describe the Osteomeatal complex with a neat labeled diagram
Draw and label Blood supply of palatine tonsil
Peritonsillar abscess is seen in a. Vincent's Angina b. Ludwig's Angina c. Unstable Angina d. Quincy
Draw and label Osteomeatal complex
Complications of Functional endoscopic sinus surgery
Draw and label Auditory pathway.
Draw and label Tonsillar bed
Impedance audiometry: Indications, procedure, and interpretation.
Draw and label Stapes
Draw and label Lateral wall of middle ear
True about Klestadt's cyst a. Develops within maxillary sinus b. Squamous epithelium-lined cyst arises from the epithelial rests c. Develops following trauma d. Also called as Antrochoanal polyp
Draw a diagram of Waldeyer’s ring.
Pathology and treatment of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
Types and etiopathogenesis of nasal polyposis
Pathological features and management of Acoustic Neuroma
Draw and label Little’s area.
Gradenigo syndrome comprises of the following except a. Suppurative otitis media b. Diplopia c. Retro-orbital pain d. None of the above
Draw and label Posterior rhinoscopic picture
Which of the following is a cause of sensorineural hearing loss: a) Presbyacusis b) Tympanosclerosis c) Otosclerosis d) Longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone
Draw and label Bed of the tonsil
What are the types of tracheostomy. Discuss the indications, steps, and complications of tracheostomy
Draw and label Structures seen in Indirect laryngoscopy (IDL).
Draw and label Structures seen in posterior rhinoscopy.
Pathogenesis, clinical features and treatment of vasomotor rhinitis.
Tracheostomy – Indications and steps of procedure
Otolith.
A 6-year-old male child presented with discharge coming from a pit in between the tragus and crus of helix of left pinna. It is due to the a. The faulty fusion between the first and the second arch tubercles b. The faulty fusion between the second and the fifth arch tubercles c. The faulty fusion between the first and the sixth arch tubercles d. The faulty fusion between the second and the third arch tubercles
Classification and mechanism of Ototoxic drugs
Pathology and Clinical features of Serous Otitis Media
Thornwaldt’s cyst
Mark the true option out of the following a. Eustachian tube is 3.6mm long, one third is bony and two thirds are cartilaginous b. Eustachian tube is 3.6mm long, one third is cartilaginous and two thirds are bony C. Eustachian tube is 36mm long, one third is bony and two thirds are cartilaginous d. Eustachian tube is 36mm long, one third is cartilaginous and two thirds are bony
Differences between antrochoanal and ethmoidal polyp
Olfactory pathway
Gastroesophageal reflux disease –clinical features and treatment
Auditory pathway
Rinne test
Fistula sign
Define tympanoplasty and write the different types.
Uses of pure tone audiometry
Characteristic clinical features and treatment of mucormycosis of nose and paranasal sinuses
Objective Tinnitus
The foetus in the womb of the mother can hear from what age a. 12 weeks of gestation b. 34 weeks of gestation c. 20 weeks of gestation d. 28 weeks of gestation
Indications and complications of Septoplasty
Tests to evaluate Eustachian Tube Dysfunction
Clinical features and management of Ludwig’s Angina
Uses of impedance audiometry
Which of the following is not a cause of pulsatile tinnitus a. Patulous Eustachian tube b. Glomus tympanicum c. Arteriovenous malformations d. Benign intracranial hypertension
Complications of mastoidectomy
Thyroglossal cyst
In right middle ear pathology, Weber's test will be a) Lateralized to the right side b) Positive c) Lateralized to left side d) Centralized
Congenital cholesteatoma.
Precancerous lesions of oral mucosa.
Management of stridor.
Procedures for immediate airway management
Treatment of Allergic Rhinitis
All are true about acute epiglottitis, except a. Caused by Haemophilus Influenzae infection b. Usually affects 2-to 7-year-olds c. 'Sunset sign is seen on X-Ray neck d. Intubation or tracheostomy may be required for respiratory obstruction
Pre malignant conditions of oral cavity
Embryology and management of Thyroglossal cyst
Etiology and clinical features of TB Larynx
Enumerate the causes of Referred Otalgia
Investigations in CSF rhinorrhea
Most common site of osteoma is a. Maxillary sinus b. Ethmoid sinus c. Frontal sinus d. Sphenoid sinus
Treatment of septal haematoma
Enumerate differential diagnosis for midline neck swellings.
Enumerate functions of larynx.
Clinical signs and tests of lateral sinus thrombophlebitis.
Functions of nose
What is Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR). Describe the anatomic site of neural generators for various waves and uses of ABR.
Impedance Audiometry – Procedure and interpretation of curves.
Technique of diagnostic nasal endoscopy
Odynophagia
The aim of Heimlich's Manoeuvre is to a. Move the larynx from side to side to assess for laryngeal click b. Apply a sudden subdiaphragmatic upward thrust to produce artificial cough c. Forward pull of the mandible to clear the upper airway d. None of the above is true
Rhinolalia clausa.
Anatomy of Tonsillar Bed with a neat labeled diagram
Describe the anatomy of lateral wall of nose
Describe Little’s area with a diagram
Management of post-tonsillectomy secondary hemorrhage
Sipple syndrome consists of a. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid b. Pheochromocytoma c. Parathyroid hyperplasia d. All of the above
Lignocaine in ENT
Treatment of ethmoidal polyposis
Diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhea
Indications of Tracheostomy.
Kiesselbach plexus.
Enumerate FOUR causes of sensorineural hearing loss.
Complications of Endoscopic sinus surgery.
Quinsy – clinical features and management.
Antrochoanal polyp
Routes of spread and clinical features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Inverted papilloma – clinical features and treatment
Alkaline nasal douche consists of a. Sodium chloride (2 parts), Sodium bicarbonate (1 part) and sodium borate (1 part) b. Sodium chloride (1 parts), sodium bicarbonate (1 part) and sodium borate (2 part) c. Sodium chloride (1 parts), sodium bicarbonate (1 part) and Glucose (1 part) d. Sodlum bicarbonate (2 part), sodium borate (1 part) and glycerine (1 part)
Enumerate the causes and treatment of Reinke’s Edema
Rhinosporidiosis- Clinical features and management
Types of Tympanogram
Incisions used in septal surgery.
The most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula is a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4
Draw a neat diagram of the osteomeatal complex and label its parts
Types of tracheostomy tubes.
Investigations and treatment of ethmoidal polyposis.
Two X ray views taken for para nasal sinuses.
Describe Waldeyer’s ring including its components and diagram.
Draw and label right tympanic membrane.
Absolute bone conduction test.
How to elicit and interpret fistula test
Tripod fracture
Dennie-morgan line is seen in a. Atrophic rhinitis b. Leprosy of nose c. Lupus vulgaris d. Allergic rhinitis
Boundaries of pyriform fossa.
Anatomy and Importance of Mac Ewen’s Triangle
Treatment of sub mucous fibrosis
Interpretation of Fistula test
Which of the following statements are false? a. Tinnitus is present in around 75% of patients with otosclerosis b. The SERPINF 1 gene is associated with otosclerosis c. Imaging is 90% sensitive in otosclerosis d. Mumps is a risk factor for otosclerosis
Two arteries of Little’s area
Jacobson’s nerve
Two causes for multiple perforation in tympanic membrane.
Signs of allergic rhinitis.
Two x-ray views taken for mastoid.
Two audiological investigations in vestibular Schwannoma
Causes of referred otalgia and pathways of its occurrence.
Draw and label laryngeal framework
Kartagener syndrome.
Write four distinct functions of larynx
Two causes of inspiratory stridor
The site of origin of fifth wave in Brainstem evoked response audiometry is a. VIII CN b. Cochlear nuclei c. Superior olivary complex d. Inferior colliculus
Three causes of Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
Causes of sudden Sensorineural hearing loss
Concerning barotrauma following flying, which of the following is false statement a. The eustachian tube is normally closed b. The volume of air in the middle ear cleft decreases as atmospheric pressure increases c. Otalgia on ascent is more common than on descent d. Hearing loss and vertigo can occur due to the pressure changes exerted during flying
Two features of tuberculous otitis media.
Commonly foreign bodies lodge in a. Gastroesophageal sphincter b. Cricopharyngeal sphincter c. Ileocecal region d. Rectal sphincter
Two named instruments used in mastoidectomy surgery
Two Eustachian tubal function tests
Arteries of Kieselbach’s plexus
Bezold abscess
Two objective tests of hearing.
Two complications of tracheostomy
Aetiology and relevant investigations in a patient with dysphagia.
Fuller’s tracheostomy tube.
Four surgical landmarks of facial nerve while doing middle ear and mastoid surgery
Two complications of SMR operation
All are causes of tinnitus perceived by both the patient and the examiner except a. Palatal myoclonus b. Congenital arteriovenous malformations c. Idiopathic stapedial muscle spasm d. Meniere's disease
Treacher Collins syndrome
Papillae of Tongue
Name the laryngeal cartilages
Three premalignant conditions of Oral cavity
Intranasal corticosteroids.
The pars tensa develops from a. Ectoderm b. Endoderm c. Mesoderm d. All three germ cell layers
Two causes of membrane over palatine tonsil.
Two complications of rigid esophagoscopy
Two complications of tonsillectomy surgery
Reinke’s oedema
Two causes of membranous tonsillitis
Write generic name of an antihistamine, its dosage and route of administration.
Two causes of unilateral tonsillar hypertrophy.
Describe ear ossicles with the help of diagram.
Saddle nose deformity.
Two causes for membranous tonsillitis.
True about Reactionary haemorrhage a. Seen between the 5th to 10th post operative day b. Usually, it can be controlled by simple measures like removal of clot, application of pressure or vasoconstrictor c. It occurs due to sepsis d. None of the above
Samter’s Triad- components and importance
Components of Gradenigo Syndrome
Components of Trotter’s Triad
Types of LASERS used in ENT.
Which of the following is true of Carhart's effect? a. It may occur in glue ear b. It typically occurs at 4kHz c. It represents a genuine sensorineural hearing loss which is overcome with stapes surgery d. It is not improved following stapes surgery
Two techniques to manage posterior nasal bleeding.
Two symptoms in Meniere’s disease
Two contraindications of syringing of ear
Parts of Stapes
Two causes of inspiration stridor
A patient is posted for stapedectomy. How do you write an informed consent.
A positive fistula test also implies all of these, except a. The labyrinth is still functioning b. Perilymphatic fistula c. Meniere's disease d. Fenestration operation
Arteries of Epistaxis
Three causes of blue tympanic membrane
Nerve supply of Tympanic membrane
Read the following disease associations and choose the correct a. Oral pigmentation and Addison's disease b. Recurrent oral vesicles and pemphigus c. Red eyes, oral ulcerations and steven Johnson syndrome d. Oral cobblestone, lichen planus and Crohn's disease
Holman Miller’s sign
Congenital causes of conductive hearing loss.
How do you counsel a patient posted for Tonsillectomy
Rinne’s test – method and interpretation
Etiopathogenesis of Eagle Syndrome
When examining a case of functional loss of voice, you ask the patient to a. Say (А) b. Say € c. Expire air d. Cough
False about "Chevallet" fracture a. Fracture line starts from anterior nasal spine and runs upwards towards the junction of bony and cartilaginous dorsum of nose b. It results from blows from below c. It results from blows from the front d. It's a vertical fracture
Draw and label Waldeyer’s Ring
Components of middle ear cleft
Epley maneuver
A patient presents with a squamous cell carcinoma of the maxillary sinus. Which are the first echelon nodes for this tumor a. Intracarotid lymph nodes b. Preauricular Lymph nodes c. Level III Lymph nodes d. Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Bezold’s abscess
All are surgical landmarks of facial nerve, except a. Round window b. Short process of incus c. Digastric ridge d. Processus cochleariformis
Anatomical constrictions of Esophagus
Differential Diagnosis of Membrane over Tonsils
3 year old child with sinusitis, you expect affected sinuses are a. Frontal and maxillary b. Frontal and ethmoidal c. Sphenoidal and maxillary d. Maxillary and ethmoidal
Bleeding septal polyp
Cause and clinical feature of Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Importance of Carhart’s Notch.
Enumerate three complications of Tonsillectomy
Tinnitus - Types with two causes for each
LeFort’s fractures- types
Components of Plummer Vinson Syndrome
Dysphagia lusoria
A 40 year old male with long standing history of sinusitis came to casualty with intermittent fever, headache and personality changes of recent onset. On examination there was papilloedema. The most likely diagnosis is a) Meningitis c) Frontal lobe abscess b) Frontal bone osteomyelitis d) Subdural abscess
‘Tear drop sign’ seen in a) Fracture of nasal bone c) Fracture of lateral wall of nose b) Fracture of zygomatic arch d) Fracture of floor of orbit
The most common organism causing malignant otitis externa is: a) Staphylococcus aureus c) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Candida albicans
All are features of Gradenigo’s syndrome except a) Otorrhoea b) Tinnitus c) Retroorbital pain d) Diplopia
The most common complication of squamous type of chronic suppurative otitis media with cholesteatoma is: a) Labyrinthitis b) Facial nerve palsy c) Brain abscess d) Mastoiditis
Gradenigo syndrome involves the following cranial nerves. a) IIIrd, VIth & Vth cranial nerves c) Vth & VIth cranial nerves b) VIIth & VIIIth cranial nerves d) IVth & VIIth cranial nerves
Vertical crest of bone in the internal acoustic meatus is known as; a) Bill’s bar b) Cog c) Ponticulus d) Falciform crest
What is Pott’s puffy tumor. a) Osteosarcoma of the frontal bone b) Adamantinoma of mandible c) Proliferative aspergillosis of maxillary sinus d) Osteomyelitis of the frontal bone causing subperiosteal abscess
Laryngocele arises from a) Anterior commissure c) True vocal folds b) Saccule of the ventricle d) Vestibular folds
Palpatory thud and audible slap are present in which of the following condition. a) Tracheal foreign body c) Laryngeal foreign body b) Bronchial foreign body d) Esophageal foreign body
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Rhinosporidiosis
CSF rhinorrhoea
Acute Epiglottitis.
Premalignant lesions of Oral cavity
Retro-pharyngeal abscess.
Atrophic rhinitis
Quinsy.
Bell’s palsy
What is Waldeyer’s ring and its components. Discuss treatment of Peritonsillar abscess.
Physiology of Deglutition
Glue ear
Allergic rhinitis.
Presbyacusis.
Referred otalgia.
Oral submucosal fibrosis.
Stapedial reflex
Audiological findings and treatment of Otosclerosis.
Management of Meniere’s disease
A female 30 yrs of age presents with loss of smell, nasal obstruction, excessive nasal crusting and social stigma due to foul smell emanating from her nose. a. What is the diagnosis of this condition? b. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis of this condition. c. How do you manage this patient?
A 22 year old HIV positive patient presents with thin Serosanguinous otorrhoea. Otoscopy revealed multiple perforations in the tympanic membrane a) What is your diagnosis? b) Mention the cause and clinical features c) How will you treat this case?
Plummer winson syndrome
Differential diagnosis of white patch on tonsil.
Ototoxicity – clinical features and management
Describe the clinical features and management of Rhino cerebral Mucormycosis.
Management of otosclerosis
Write a short note on Ototoxicity
Discuss the physiology of Nose and paranasal sinuses.
Rhinoscleroma
Deaf mutism.
Impedance audiometry.
Indications and Complications of Tracheostomy.
Enumerate the congenital causes of stridor. Discuss clinical features and management of Acute Epiglottitis.
Rhinoscleroma of nose
Discuss Vocal Voice rehabilitation following total laryngectomy.
Discuss the difference SMR and septoplasty.
A four year old child presents with fever of sudden onset, odynophagia and respiratory difficulty. On examination child is febrile, looks toxic with drooling of saliva and SPO2 is 85%. Thumb sign was positive on X-ray. a) What is the condition the child is suffering from? b) Discuss the etiology and management of this condition
Indications and Complications of Oesophagoscopy.
What are the pathways of spread of infection following Suppurative Otitis Media? Discuss the treatment of Lateral Sinus Thrombosis.
Mention the indications and discuss steps and complications of functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery.
Rhinosporidosis
Impedance matching.
Clinical features and surgical management of JNA
Causes of Stridor.
Acute coalescent mastoiditis.
Clinical features and management of CSF Rhinorrhoea.
Clinical features and management of antrochoanal polyp
Briefly describe the applied Anatomy of the retropharyngeal space. Discuss the clinical features and management of acute retropharyngeal abscess.
Labyrinthitis
Trismus.
BPPV
Clinical features and management of Labyrinthitis.
Etiology, clinical features and management of Atrophic rhinitis.
FESS
Draw a neat labelled diagram of lateral wall of nose.
What is the Candidacy profile for cochlear implantation? Mention the components and functions of a cochlear implant.
Frontal mucocele
Classify Cholesteatoma and explain the theories of Cholesteatoma formation.
Management of epistaxis
Orbital complications of Sinusitis.
Mention the normal constrictions of esophagus. Enumerate indications and Complications of Rigid Oesophagoscopy
Clinical features and management of Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.
Obstructive Sleep Apnea Syndrome.
Define FESS. Briefly describe indications and steps of FESS.
Medical and surgical treatment of Meniere’s disease.
Cold abscess of neck
Extra cranial complications of Sinusitis.
Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis
Physiology of nose
Hearing rehabilitation of deaf child.
List out various types of foreign bodies in Ear and methods to remove them
Functional endoscopic sinus surgery – enumerate the indications and complications.
Pure tone audiometry
Otosclerosis – clinical features and management.
Etiopathogenesis and management of Rhinocerebral Mucormycosis.
Etiology and management of Atrophic Rhinitis.
Clinical features and management of chronic maxillary sinusitis
An elderly diabetic with poorly controlled blood glucose levels presents with deep seated gnawing ear pain on the right side. The pain aggravates at night-time. On examination a granulation tissue polyp was observed in the external auditory canal. a. What is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? b. List the common microbial organisms causing this condition. c. Discuss the treatment modalities of this condition.
A 30 year old male patient presents with acute onset dysphagia after eating a non vegetarian meal. X-ray soft tissues of the neck reveals a radio opaque object in the cervical Oesophagus. a) What is your diagnosis? b) How will you treat this patient? c) What are the complications of this condition?
Vocal cord paralysis
Causes and management of nasal septal perforation
Complications of Sinusitis.
Describe the mechanism of deglutition.
An adult male 40 yrs of age presented with right sided severe throat pain radiating to the ipsilateral ear associated with high grade fever and difficulty in mouth opening. Patient also had a prior history of recurrent sore throat. a. What is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? b. What are the other clinical signs seen in this condition. c. Discuss its treatment.
Leukoplakia
Clinical features and management of Lateral Sinus Thrombosis
Theories of cholesteatoma formation.
Lefort fractures – Types and management.
Sphenoethmoidal air cell is A. Agger nasi B. Bulla ethmoidalis C. Haller cell D. Onodi cell
The pyramid is present in the ______________ wall of the middle ear A. Anterior B. Medial C. Posterior D. Lateral
The following statement is incorrect with regards to Malignant otitis externa A. Young adolescents present commonly with this condition B. Involves Facial nerve C. Spreads to Skull base D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection
Jacobson’s nerve is A. Tympanic branch of IX nerve B. Auricular branch of X nerve C. Chorda tympani branch of VII nerve D. Greater superficial petrosal nerve
The membranous labyrinth of Inner ear contains A. Cystolymph B. Otolymph C. Perilymph D. Endolymph
Velopharyngeal insufficiency causes: A. Hyponasality B. Hot potato voice C. Hypernasality D. Aphonia
Type C Tympanogram is characteristic of A. Middle ear fluid B. Negative middle ear pressure C. Otosclerosis D. Normal middle ear pressure
Perforation with irregular margins in the tympanic membrane is seen in A. Syphilis B. Cholesteatoma C. Trauma D. Tuberculous otitis media
The following is not true for Otosclerosis A. B type of curve is seen in Impedance audiometry B. Carhart's notch is seen in PTA C. Rinne's Test is Negative D. Schwartz sign is Positive
Transitional cell papilloma (Schnederian papilloma) of nose is normally associated with one of the following A. Transitional cell carcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Adenocarcinoma
A female patient with diabetes presents with severe ear pain. On examination there is granulation tissue in the external auditory canal and LMN type of facial nerve palsy. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Mucormycosis B. Herpes zoster oticus C. Ramsay Hunt syndrome D. Malignant otitis externa
Promontory seen in middle ear is A. Jugular Bulb B. Basal turn of cochlea C. Semicircular Canal D. Head of Incus
Quinsy is a collection of pus in the : A. Between capsule of tonsil and middle constrictor B. Between capsule of tonsil and superior constrictor C. Between superior constrictor and Buccopharyngeal fascia D. Between capsule of tonsil and Buccopharyngeal fascia
In Laryngomalacia, Stridor subsides in A. Prone position B. Supine position C. Any lateral position D. Rose’s position
Hectic picket fence type of fever is seen in A. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis B. Meningitis C. Brain abscess D. Subdural abscess
The following are the intra-temporal complications of Chronic suppurative Otitis media, except A. Lateral Sinus Thrombophlebitis B. Facial Nerve Palsy C. Labyrinthitis D. Mastoiditis
All of the following from the boundaries of Trautmann’s triangle EXCEPT A. Labyrinth B. Sigmoid sinus C. Superior petrosal Sinus D. Facial Nerve
Which of the following is not the component of Gradenigo’s triad : A. Involvement of Vth and VIth cranial nerve B. Persistent Otorrhea C. Palatal palsy D. Retro- orbital pain
Potato tumor of the nose is also know as A. Rodent ulcer of nose B. Epithelioma of nose C. Rhinophyma D. Inverted Papilloma
Gradenigo triad is characterized by all EXCEPT A. Retroorbital pain B. Persistent discharge from the ear C. VII nerve involvement D. VI nerve involvement
Cold water entry into external auditory canal is associated with A. Osteoma B. Exostosis C. Ceruminoma D. Sebaceous adenoma
Earache following tonsillectomy is referred through which nerve? A. Glossopharyngeal B. Vagus C. Trigeminal D. Abducent
Young’s operation is done for A. Atrophic rhinitis B. Allergic rhinitis C. Vasomotor rhinitis D. Chronic rhinitis
Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by: A. Internal branch of Superior Laryngeal Nerve B. External branch of superior laryngeal nerve C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Kashima’s operation is done in A. Bilateral abductor paralysis B. Unilateral abductor paralysis C. Bilateral adductor paralysis D. Unilateral adductor paralysis
Mikulicz cells are seen in A. Rhinosporidiosis B. Rhinoscleroma C. Rhinophyma D. Atrophic rhinitis
The following are parts of the ethmoidal bone EXCEPT A. Inferior turbinate B. Middle turbinate C. Superior turbinate D. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
Delphian node is other name for A. Para laryngeal lymph node B. Para tracheal lymph node C. Pre laryngeal lymph node D. Retro laryngeal lymph node
In Caldwell-Luc operation, entry into the maxillary sinus is made through A. Transethmoid approach B. Canine fossa C. Maxillary alveolus D. Middle meatus
Type 1 thyroplasty is for: A. Vocal cord medialization B. Vocal cord lateralization C. Vocal cord shortening D. Vocal cord lengthening
Mikulicz cells are seen in A. Rhinosporidosis B. Rhinoscleroma C. Lupus vulgaris D. Rhinocerebral mucormycosis
False negative Rinne test is seen in A. Unilateral Otosclerosis B. Ossicular fixation C. Severe unilateral sensory neural hearing loss D. Unilateral Otitis Media with Effusion
Vidian neurectomy is done in A. Allergic rhinitis B. Chronic sinusitis C. Acute sinusitis D. Vasomotor rhinitis
Which of the following is indicative of foreign body in Tracheo-bronchial tree in a child? A. History of coughing B. X-ray of chest with hyper inflated lung on one side C. X-ray of chest with unilateral atelectasis D. All of the above
Positive fistula test in the absence of fistula is A. Tulio’s phenomenon B. Hennebert’s sign C. Romberg’s sign D. Frenzel’s sign
Nasopharyngeal obstruction due to adenoids can lead to all EXCEPT A. Sinusitis B. Serous Otitis Media C. Cor pulmonale D. Proptosis
Narrowest part in respiratory tract in adult is: A. Trachea B. Glottis C. Carina D. None of above
‘Delta sign’ of Lateral Sinus Thrombosis on Contrast-enhanced CT scan is seen in A. Middle cranial fossa B. Sinus plate C. Sino Dural angle D. Posterior cranial fossa
Killians polyp is A. Ethmoidal polyp B. Antrochoanal polyp C. Sphenochoanal polyp D. Bleeding septal polyp
Type of epithelium lining the vocal cords is A. Columnar B. Stratified squamous C. Pseudo stratified ciliated columnar D. Cuboidal
Gutzmann’s pressure test is useful in the diagnosis of the following condition A. Glottic cancer B. Puberphonia C. Stuttering D. Rhinolalia aperta
Which one of the following arteries belongs to internal carotid system? A. Sphenopalatine B. Greater palatine C. Anterior ethmoid D. Nasopalatine
Tympanic plexus is derived from A. Arnold’s Nerve B. Jacobson’s Nerve C. Bell’s Nerve D. Gacek’s Nerve
Schwartz operation is A. Radical mastoidectomy B. Modified radical mastoidectomy C. Tympanoplasty D. Cortical mastoidectomy
Choanal atresia is seen due to persistence of A. Bucconasal membrane B. Buccopharyngeal membrane C. Pharyngobasilar membrane D. Both b & c
Frey’s syndrome is a complication of A. Mastoidectomy B. Tonsillectomy C. Laryngectomy D. Parotidectomy
Which of the following drugs is linked with Rhinitis medicamentosa A. Intra-nasal steroid spray B. Ipratropium bromide C. Xylometazoline D. Cocaine
Muscle which opens the Eustachian tube is A. Tensor veli palatini B. Superior constrictor C. Salphingopharyngeus D. Palatopharyngeus
Sensory nerve supply above the level of vocal cords is by A. Glossopharyngeal nerve B. Superior laryngeal nerve C. Recurrent laryngeal nerve D. Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Killian’s dehiscence is seen in: A. Oropharynx B. Nasopharynx C. Cricopharynx D. Vocal cords
Beta-2 transferrin is a protein seen in A. CSF B. Perilymph C. Aqueous humour D. All of the above
Most common site of origin of carcinoma larynx is A. Glottis B. Subglottis C. Supraglottis D. Marginal zone
A 4 year old child presents with bleeding from the right side of the nose. His mother also gives history of foul smelling purulent discharge from the same side. The most likely diagnosis is A. Septal deviation with Right maxillary sinusitis B. Unilateral choanal atresia C. Antrochoanal polyp D. Foreign body
Mikulicz cells are seen in A. Rhinosporidiosis B. Rhinitis Sicca C. Rhinoscleroma D. Rhinitis caseosa
Vidian neurectomy is done for A. Rhinitis Medicamentosa B. Excessive watery rhinorrhea C. Migraine D. Atropic Rhinitis
Surgical landmark to the facial nerve in middle ear surgery is A. Prussak’s space B. Processus cochleariformis C. Handle of malleus D. Sinus tympani
Care of Tracheostomized patient include all EXCEPT A. Humidification by wet gauze B. Tube change within 72 hrs C. Periodic deflation of the cuff D. Suctioning of the catheter only while withdrawing
The length of adult oesophagus is A. 22 cms B. 24 cms C. 25 cms D. 27 cms
Laryngocele arises from A. Vallecula B. Laryngeal saccule C. Laryngeal Vestibule D. Aryepiglottic fold
Dohlman’s procedure is done as a treatment for A. Hypopharyngeal diverticulum B. Obstructive sleep apnoea C. Foreign body Oesophagus D. Foreign body Bronchus
Steeple sign seen on x-ray Postero-anterior view of neck in a child with stridor is indicative of A. Acute epiglottitis B. Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis C. Laryngeal papillomatosis D. Bilateral abductor paralysis
The inner Waldeyer’s group of lymphatic structures DOES NOT include A. Submandibular lymph node B. Tonsil C. Lingual tonsil D. Adenoids
Nasal Syphilis causes destruction of A. Bony and cartilaginous part of septum B. Cartilaginous part of septum C. Bony part of septum D. Columella
Discuss in detail, etiology, clinical features and management of Meniere’s disease.
1. A 55 yrs old male patient presented with acute vertigo lasting few hours associated with vomiting, right sided ear block, tinnitus, and right sided fluctuating hearing loss. a. What is the diagnosis? b. Describe the aetiopathogenesis of this condition c. Discuss the investigation for diagnosing the above condition d. What are the various modalities of treatment?
A 25 year old male patient presents with fever and severe otalgia.ENT examination revealed displacement of the Pinna forwards and laterally, mastoid tenderness was present, creamy purulent discharge was seen in the external auditory canal. Sagging of the external auditory canal was evident. Tympanic membrane revealed a central perforation with lighthouse sign a) What is your diagnosis? b) Discuss the aetiopathology and clinical features c) Describe the necessary investigations d) How will you treat this patient?
Describe the anatomy of lateral wall of nose. Describe the types and management of nasal polyps.
A 14 year old boy presented to the ENT Out-patient with history of profuse, unprovoked bleeding from the right nasal cavity. Nasal endoscopy revealed a pink vascular mass in the nasopharynx. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Discuss the etiology and management of this condition
A 60 year old male patient presents with watery nasal discharge, sneezing and bilateral nasal obstruction since 6 months. On examination he is found to have multiple pale grape like masses filling both the nasal cavities. a) What is the likely diagnosis of this patient? b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of this condition. c) Add a note on the medical and surgical management.
Classify and enumerate the complications of chronic suppurative otitis media. Discuss clinical features and management of Lateral Sinus Thrombosis.
Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
A 14 year old boy presents to the ENT out-patient with complaints of inability to close the right eye and deviation of angle of mouth to left. He has history of foul smelling ear discharge from the right ear from the last 2 years and was advised to undergo ear surgery on ENT consultation in the past. On examination an attic perforation was seen in the right tympanic membrane. What is your diagnosis? List all the other complications that can occur in this disease. Discuss the management of this patient.
Describe Tracheostomy in detail – definition, types, function, indications, procedure, post-operative care and complications.
A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency at midnight with complaints of severe pain in the right ear. The child has cold and fever since 2-3 days. No history of trauma. On examination the right tympanic membrane is congested and bulged. a. What is the most probable diagnosis? b. Describe the etiopathogenesis and stages of the condition. c. What is light house sign? d. Briefly discuss the investigation and treatment of above condition
A male patient with history of left ear discharge since 5 years presented with fever, pain and swelling behind the left ear since 5 days. On examination, the skin over the mastoid had an ironed-out appearance and X-ray showed clouding of the mastoid air cells. a. What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnoses? b. Explain the pathological process responsible for this condition. c. Mention clinical features and management of this condition.
Describe the etiopathology, clinical features and management of allergic rhinitis.
A Male child 3 yrs of age presents with noisy breathing since 1 day. He has been having upper respiratory tract infection since 3 days, with high grade fever and pain on swallowing. Child was immunized upto age. X ray neck reveals thumb sign. a. What is the most likely diagnosis? b. Define stridor c. Mention two causes for stridor d. Discuss the treatment of this condition
A 45 year old female patient presents with a history of hoarseness of voice since 2 months. Indirect laryngoscopy showed the left vocal cord in a paramedian position on phonation with a phonatory gap a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the various causes for this condition c) What investigations will you order? d) How will you treat this patient?
Describe the etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of otosclerosis.
Describe the etiology, investigations and management of a patient presenting with acute respiratory distress and Stridor.
A 30 year old male patient gives history of scanty foul smelling left ear discharge since one year also associated with decreased hearing. On examination, he is found to have perforation in pars flaccida. a) What is the diagnosis of this patient? b) Describe the etiopathogenesis and theories associated with this condition. c) Briefly discuss the management. d) List out the complications he is likely to develop if un-treated.
Write a note on anatomy of nasal septum. Describe types of nasal septal deviation, clinical features and management of Deviated Nasal septum.
Describe the indications, procedure and complications of Tracheostomy.
Describe the pathogenesis, etiology, clinical features and management of Otitis Media with effusion
Describe the Aetiology, investigations and management of Epistaxis.
Write about epistaxis in detail – causes, sites, investigations and management.
A father brought his 9 year old son to the emergency, who had undergone tonsillectomy 5 days back with complaint that child had vomited out a large amount of blood 1 hour back. After that fresh blood was oozing from the tonsillar fossa covered by unhealthy slough. a. What is most probable diagnosis? b. Discuss complications of tonsillectomy with their causes. c. Write about management of the present case. d. What are the causes for white patch over tonsil with cardinal points for each?
A lady 30 yrs of age with intermittent episodes of nasal obstruction, sneezing and watery nasal discharge has been having persistent bilateral nasal obstruction with loss of smell since 6 months. On examination multiple, pale masses are seen in both nasal cavities. a. What is the most likely diagnosis? b. Briefly describe the etiopathogenesis of this condition. c. Describe the in-vitro and in-vivo tests for this condition. d. Write a note on various modalities of treatment of this condition.
What is cholesteatoma? Describe briefly the etiopathogenesis and management of cholesteatoma.
Choanal atresia.
Fistula test.
Eagle’s syndrome.
Vocal nodules
Plummer Vinson syndrome.
Inverted papilloma
Myringotomy
Schwartz’s sign.
Little’s area
Vincent’s angina.
Waldeyer’s ring.
Ototoxicity.
Cottle’s test
Otomycosis.
Carhart’s notch
Saddle nose
Mc Evan’s triangle.
Septal perforation
Informed consent for Modified Radical Mastoidectomy.
Types of tympanoplasty.
Lupus vulgaris.
Rhinitis medicamentosa.
Heimlich manoeuvre
Reinke’s edema.
Nasal myiasis
Reactionary hemorrhage after Tonsillectomy
Impedance matching mechanism of middle ear.
Rhinitis caseosa.
Water’s view x-ray.
Croup
Juvenile Laryngeal papilloma.
Clinical features and treatment of Laryngomalacia
Techniques of Myringoplasty.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
Laryngocoele
Oral submucus fibrosis.
Three causes of Facial nerve palsy
Theories of Hearing.
Vocal Polyp
Traumatic perforation of Tympanic membrane.
Tympanic membrane
Fracture nasal bones.
Facial recess
Petrositis
Oroantral fistula
Interpretation of Rinne’s test.
Name the common organisms causing ASOM.
Tracheostomy.
Unpaired cartilages of the larynx.
Otalgia
Nasal bone fracture.
Cardinal symptoms of Meniere’s disease.
Caloric test and its significance.
Surgeries for Atrophic Rhinitis.
Achalasia Cardia
Secondary Acquired Cholesteatoma.
Lermoyez syndrome
Tuning fork test
Cholesteatoma.
Draw neat labelled diagram of the right Tympanic membrane.
Causes of Tinnitus.
Kaposi Sarcoma.
Pure tone and impedance Audiometry findings in Otosclerosis.
Keratosis tonsil
Osteo-meatal complex.
Septal Hematoma.
Draw a labelled diagram of indirect laryngoscopy.
Strictures of oesophagus
Perichondritis Pinna.
Oro-antral fistula
Enumerate the causes of fluctuating hearing loss.
Mucociliary mechanism.
Acute Necrotising Otitis Media.
Premalignant condition of larynx
Causes of Vertigo.
Blood supply of adenoids
Pharyngeal pouch.
Vocal cord nodule.
Singer’s nodule.
Counselling for cochlear implant
Tympanogram
Counselling of a patient for tracheostomy
Otomycosis externa.
Name the muscles of the middle ear, describe functions.
Management of acute tonsillitis
Posterior Rhinoscopy
Tympanosclerosis
Elongated styloid process
Nerve supply of external ear
Previous-year question papers. Question patterns derived from published papers for ENT.