General Medicine Previous Year Question Papers
306001
55 papers · MBBS · previous-year papers
- KNRUHS MBBS General Medicine April 2026 (MB2019132 Regular)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KNRUHS MBBS General Medicine April 2026 (MB2019131 Regular)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KNRUHS MBBS General Medicine June 2025 (MB2019132 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KNRUHS MBBS General Medicine June 2025 (MB2019131 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine July 2025 (1037 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine July 2025 (1038 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine September 2025 (1093 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine September 2025 (1094 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine April 2025 (1094 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - april 2025 (306001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KNRUHS MBBS General Medicine May 2024 (MB2019132 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KNRUHS MBBS General Medicine May 2024 (MB2019131 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- NTRUHS MBBS General Medicine December 2024 (SET-D CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine May 2024 (1038 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine February 2024 (1037 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine February 2024 (1038 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine May 2024 (1037 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - august 2024 (305001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - august 2024 (306001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - july 2024 (321001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - July 2024 (322001 Revised)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - march 2024 (305001 Revised)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - march 2024 (306001 Revised)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - march 2024 (321001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - march 2024 (322001 Revised)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine February 2023 (1094 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine July 2023 (1094 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - march 2023 (306001 Revised)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - march 2023 (305001 Revised)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - August 2023 (305001 Revised)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - august 2023 (306001 Revised)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- NTRUHS MBBS General Medicine December 2022 (Regular)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- NTRUHS MBBS General Medicine January 2022 (Regular)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- NTRUHS MBBS General Medicine January 2022 (Regular)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine February 2022 (1093 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine February 2022 (1094 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - september 2022 (305001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - march 2022 (306001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - March 2022 (305001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - september 2022 (306001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- NTRUHS MBBS General Medicine March 2021 (Regular)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- NTRUHS MBBS General Medicine March 2021 (Regular)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine September 2021 (1094 RS3)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine March 2021 (1093 RS3)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - May 2021 (305001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - May 2021 (306001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - november 2021 (305001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - november 2021 (306001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- NTRUHS MBBS General Medicine January 2020 (Regular)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- NTRUHS MBBS General Medicine September 2020 (Regular)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- RGUHS MBBS General Medicine October 2020 (1093 RS3)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - february 2020 (306001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - october 2020 (306001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - february 2020 (305001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
- KUHS MBBS General Medicine Previous Question Paper - october 2020 (305001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Medicine
Showing 20 of 1150 questions
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections can be diagnosed with a "darkfield" microscopy? A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Treponema pallidum (syphilis) C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Trichomonas vaginalis
A patient presents with sudden-onset chest pain, shortness of breath, and a feeling of impending doom. The ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Unstable angina B) Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) C) Pulmonary embolism D) Aortic dissection
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of primary syphilis? A) Painful genital ulcer with purulent discharge B Painless genital ulcer (chancre) C) Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy D) Genital warts
What is the primary mechanism of action of ACE Inhibitors in treating heart failure? A) Inhibition of sodium reabsorption in the kidneys B) Reduction of afterload by vasodilation C) Inhibition of platelet aggregation D) Increased myocardial contractility
The most common primary malignant brain tumor in adults is: A) Glioblastoma multiforme B) Meningioma C) Medulloblastoma D) Pituitary adenoma
What is the most likely cause of a widened pulse pressure in a 60-year-old patient with a history of hypertension? A) Aortic stenosis B) Aortic regurgitation C) Mitral stenosis D) Pulmonary hypertension
A 25-year-old woman presents with generalized weakness and diplopia. She reports that the symptoms worsen as the day progresses and improve after rest. On examination, she has ptosis and a positive ice-pack test. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Multiple sclerosis B) Myasthenia gravis C) Guillain-Barré syndrome D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
Which of the following is a first-line treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? A) Benzodiazepines B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy C) Antipsychotics D) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
A patient presents with intense fear of being in crowded places. She avoids public transportation and large gatherings. This is most consistent with A) Social anxiety disorder B) Panic disorder C) Agoraphobia D) Specific phobia
A 35-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of intensely pruritic vesicles on her hands and feet. The lesions are grouped and have a "dew drop on a rose petal" appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Chickenpox B) Herpes simplex virus infection C) Hand, foot, and mouth disease D) Impetigo
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of "honeycomb lung" on chest imaging? A) Asthma B) Chronic bronchitis C) Pulmonary fibrosis D) Pneumonia
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological treatment for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in adults? A) Lithium B) methylphenidate C) Antipsychotics D) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of a "herald patch" followed by the development of a "Christmas tree" pattern of erythematous lesions? A) Psoriasis B) Pityriasis rosea C) Lichen planus D) Tinea corporis
Which of the following conditions is most likely to present with "digital clubbing"? A) Asthma B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) C) Interstitial lung disease D) Pulmonary embolism
A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with bone pain and deformities. His phosphate and calcium levels are abnormal. What is the most likely cause of his condition? A) Osteoarthritis B) Renal osteodystrophy C) Paget's disease D) Osteoporosis
A 40-year-old man presents with shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). His chest X-ray shows no consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Pulmonary embolism B) Pneumothorax C) Pneumonia D) Pleural effusion
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for osteoporosis in postmenopausal women? A) Bisphosphonates B) Parathyroid hormone analogs C) Calcium supplements D) Calcitonin
Types of respiratory failure
Antiretroviral drugs
Falls in elderly
Body mass index
Discuss the Etiopathogenesis, investigations and management of Pneumothorax
Classify cardiomyopathies. Discuss clinical features, investigations & treatment of Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Describe the etiology, clinical features and complications of AIDS. How will you treat AIDS?
‘Discuss the causes and complications of Liver Cirrhosis. 2+34+5=10 Discuss the management of Portal Hypertension
Discuss the Etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of Pyogenic meningitis
Barrett's Oesophagus
Vitiligo
Complications of Malaria
Interpretation of Liver Function Test
Vasculotoxie snake bite
Multiple Myeloma
Trace Elements
Four causes of purpura
Clinical features of Iron deficiency
Clinical features of psoriasis
Clinical features of OP poisoning
DPP-4 INHIBITORS
Bronchodilators
Tumor markers
Anticoagulants
Immunosuppressive drugs
Respiratory fluoroquinolones
Clinical features of Ankylosis spondylitis
Types of Renal Tubular Acidosis
Oral candidiasis
Classify different types of psychosis. Mention the difference between psychosis and neurosis, discuss management of psychosis
Discuss pathogenesis, clinical features, management and complications of Ethanol induced liver disease.
Discuss etiology, clinical features and management of infective endocarditis.
Name anterior pituitary hormones. Discuss clinical features and treatment of thyrotoxicosis.
Ischemic cardiomyopathy
Anaphylactic shock
Chronic myeloid leukemia
Ischemic Stroke
Ankylosing spondylitis
Black water fever
Hepatic encephalopathy
K.F.D. (Kyasanur Forest Disease)
Complicated urinary tract infection
Secondary hypertension
Pulmonary function tests
Features of raised intra cranial tension
Drugs causing agranulocytosis
Four triggering factors of migraine
Name four investigations for Thalassemia
Name four drugs causing lupus
Yellow oleander poisoning
Trigeminal neuralgia
JAK2 Proteins
Treatment of Kala azar
GAD antibodies
Newer proton pump inhibitors
Norwegian scabies
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Four causes of atrial fibrillation
Four causes of sterile pyuria
Opportunistic infections in HIV
Pellagra.
Reactive arthritis.
Lupus nephritis.
CSF in TB Meningitis.
Clinical features of bronchiectasis.
Which electrophysiological activity is responsible for the t wave in ecg. A) Ventricular repolarisation B) Ventricular depolarisation C) Atrial depolarisation D) Atrial repolarisation
Sinus Bradycardia is defined as heart rate of A) <40/min B) <50/min C) <60/min D) <70/min
A middle-aged person is rushed to the emergency department with a history of weakness of left upper and lower limbs for the last 30 minutes. The imaging modality of choice to plan appropriate treatment will be a) Non-Contrast CT of the brain b) MRI of the brain c) Carotid Doppler study d) EEG
Carey coombs murmur is heard in A) Mitral valvulitis B) Mitral regurgitation C) Tricuspid stenosis D) Tricuspid regurgitation
Gender specific side effect of Valproate A) Alopecia B) Weight loss C) PCOD D) Tremor
The site of lesion in Korsakoff’s psychosis is a) Frontal lobe b) Corpus striatum c) Mamillary body d) Cingulate gyrus
Which of the following feature is considered as the hallmark pathology in Guillain-Barré Syndrome A) Inflammation B) Demyelination C) Gliosis D) Neuronal loss
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Kwashiorkar A) Bipedal edema B) Muscle wasting C) Moon face D) Low serum albumin
Night sweats are common with a) Tuberculosis b) Dengue fever c) Typhoid fever d) All of the above
Which STD is characterized by the presence of painless genital ulcers known as chancres A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) D) Trichomoniasis
Most common cause of death in Measles A) Meningitis B) Encephalitis C) Dehydration D) Pneumonia
Typhoid fever is best diagnosed by a) Widal test b) Urine culture c) Blood culture d) Ultrasound abdomen
Which of the following is a primary characteristic of rabies infection. A) Severe itching and skin rashes B) Progressive neurological symptoms leading to paralysis C) Severe joint pain and swelling D) Sudden onset of fever and vomiting Essay/ long answer questions:
Faget sign is A) Tachycardia with hypertension B) Bradycardia with Hyperthermia C) Tachycardia with hyperthermia D) Bradycardia with hypothermia
SUB acute combined degeneration of spinal cord is seen in a) Vitamin B1 deficiency b) Vitamin B6 deficiency c) Vitamin B12 deficiency d) Vitamin D deficiency
Etiology, presentation, diagnosis and treatment of ischemic cerebrovascular stroke.
Enteric fever/Typhoid-etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, complications, investigations and treatment.
Describe the etiology, clinical features, investigation and management of Guillain Barre Syndrome.
Falls in elderly- causes.
Herpes Zoster: clinical features, diagnosis and management.
HAART.
Unstable Angina- clinical features and management.
Toxic Shock Syndrome.
Sjogern’s syndrome- clinical features and management.
Beri Beri - clinical features and management.
Fall in Elderly – causes.
Atrial Flutter.
Acute rheumatic fever.
Transient Ischemic Attack- define.
Treatment of enteric fever.
Pulmonary Edema - 3 causes.
Treatment of Myasthenia Gravis.
Scabies complications.
Neuro Cysticercosis treatment.
Haematuria.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of "target lesions". A) Erythema multiforme B) Lichen planus C) Vitiligo D) Seborrheic dermatitis
Increased Reid Index is classically associated with A) Chronic bronchitis B) Emphysema C) ILD D) Bronchiectasis
A 40-year-old man presents in a clinic with a history of chronic productive cough that is worse in the morning and brought on by changes in posture. Sputum is copious and yellow. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is: a) Bronchial asthma. b) Bronchiectasis. c) Bronchogenic carcinoma d) Chronic bronchitis
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for severe bacterial infections caused by MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus). A) Amoxicillin B) Ciprofloxacin C) Vancomycin D) Penicillin
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome includes all except A) Hypoxia B) Hypercapnia C) Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema D) Normal PCWP
One of the following is a diagnostic sign of psoriasis a) Buttonhole sign b) Shawl sign c) Auspitz sign d) Leser-trelat sign
In which of the following conditions is the "bamboo spine" radiologic finding commonly seen. A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Osteoarthritis C) Ankylosing spondylitis D) Gout
Anti Nuclear Antibodies seen in all except A) Systemic sclerosis B) Morphea C) SLE D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Which mood stabilizer among the following has a therapeutic window phenomenon? a) Valproate b) Lithium c) Oxcarbazepine d) Carbamazepine
Papilledema and headache are features of which vitamin toxicity. A) Vitamin a B) Vitamin c C) Vitamin e D) Vitamin k
P ANCA is characteristic for A) Polyarteritis nodosa B) Microscopic polyangitis C) Wegeners granulomatosis D) Henoch schonleinpurpura
In Felty’s syndrome, the triad includes all except a) Granulocytopenia b) Splenomegaly c) Rheumatoid Arthritis d) Conjunctivitis
A deficiency of which mineral is associated with the development of osteomalacia (softening of the bones) in adults. A) Calcium B) Phosphorus C) Iodine D) Magnesium
Which is NOT an autoimmune disease A) SLE B) Graves disease C) Ulcerative colitis D) Rheumatoid arthritis
The common cause of COPD in women in India is a) Smoking b) Biomass fuel exposure c) Occupational exposure d) Chewing of tobacco
Describe the aetiology, clinical features, investigation and management of Heart Failure.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). Define, etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations, complications and management.
Describe the aetiology, clinical features, investigation and management of Community Acquired Pneumonia.
Anorexia nervosa- causes and management.
Diseases Modifying Anti Rheumatoid Drugs (DMARDs) indications.
Toxic epidermal necrolysis- causes and management.
Difference between Psychosis and Neurosis. Add a note on management of depression.
Alcohol withdrawal syndrome.
Hypertension mediated end organ damage.
Erythema multiforme
Bronchoscopy.
Parenteral Nutrition.
Wheeze
Occupational Asthma.
Anorexia Nervosa management
Extra intestinal amoebiasis.
Ankylosing Spondylitis (extra articular features)
Anxiety Disorders.
Psoriasis treatment
Dermatitis Herpetiformis.
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
All of the following are features of crohn's disease except: A) Transmural involvement B) Lead pipe appearance C) Rectal sparing D) Perianal fistula
What is the primary cause of cystic fibrosis. A) Environmental factors B) Mutation in the cftr gene C) Viral infection D) Bacterial infection
Which of the following can occur following chronic administration of amiodarone to subjects with iodine deficiency? a) Hyperthyroidism b) Hypothyroidism c) Hypothyroidism followed by hyperthyroidism d) De Quervain's thyroiditis
A patient presents with severe colitis associated with an overgrowth of clostridium difficile in the lower part of intestine. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition. A) Stomach ulcer B) Food poisoning C) Antibiotic therapy D) Immunosuppressed person
In which condition is hepatic encephalopathy most commonly observed. A) Cirrhosis B) Hepatitis A C) Acute pancreatitis D) Cholecystitis
Which of the following medications is preferred to reduce proteinuria in diabetic nephropathy? a) Enalapril b) Methyldopa c) Prazosin d) Amlodipine
RIFLE criteria is used to classify A) Acute kidney injury B) Chronic renal failure C) Acute glomerulonephritis D) Nephrotic syndrome
Calculate the GCS score in an intubated patient, with findings of eye movements to pain and abnormal flexion. A) E2VTM4 B) E2VTM3 C) E2V1M3 D) E2VNTM3
The haemoglobin threshold for blood transfusion in upper GI bleed in a haemodynamically stable patient is a) 4 gm% b) 7 gm% c) 9 gm% d) 10 gm%
Normocytic normochromic anemia is seen in patients with which of the following A) Iron deficiency B) Kidney disease C) Lead toxicity D) Thalassemia
What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease. A) Stress B) Helicobacter pylori infection C) Non-Steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) D) Excessive alcohol consumption
Hyperpyrexia is defined as body temperature greater than a) 37.5 ° C b) 32.5 ° C c) 41.5 ° C d) 38.5 ° C
Which antidote is commonly used to treat organophosphate poisoning. A) Naloxone B) Atropine C) Flumazenil D) Activated charcoal
Which of the following is a clinical feature of hemochromatosis. A) Bronze skin pigmentation B) Hepatomegaly C) Diabetes mellitus D) All the above
Nephrotic Syndrome is characterized by the following features EXCEPT a) Oedema b) Proteinuria c) Hypoalbuminemia d) Decreased triglyceride level
On thyroid function test analysis, TSH value was much higher than normal with a low free T4. What is the diagnosis. A) Subclinical hypothyroidism B) Hyperthyroidism C) Secondary hypothyroidism D) Primary hypothyroidism
The cornerstone of treatment for a patient of dengue with warning signs is: A) IV fluids B) Platelets C) Cryoglobulins D) FFP
Which of the following features is unlikely to be seen in irritable bowel syndrome. a) Weight loss b) Constipation c) Diarrhoea d) Diffuse pain abdomen
All of the following are features of wilson's disease except A) Increased copper content in liver B) Increased ceruloplasmin C) Mental changes D) Features of chronic active hepatitis
Relative bradycardia occurs in: A) Typhoid fever B) Dengue fever C) Opioid poisoning D) All of the above
Flumazenil is used as antagonist for a) Organo phosphorous poisoning b) Benzodiazepine poisoning c) Opioids poisoning d) Aspirin poisoning
The peripheral vascular resistance is decreased in A) Hypovolemic shock B) Cardiogenic shock C) Obstructive shock D) Distributive shock
What is the best single test to confirm iron deficiency. A) TIBC B) Serum iron C) Serum ferritin D) Transferrin saturation
The gut hormone which stimulates insulin release is a) Gastric inhibitory peptide b) Secretin c) Gastrin d) Somatostatin
Which of the following are the complications of typhoid fever. A) Myocarditis B) Intestinal perforation C) Cholecystitis D) All the above
What is the primary genetic mutation associated with chronic myeloid leukemia. A) JAK2 mutation B) BCR-ABL fusion gene C) TP53 mutation D) KRAS mutation
True about mitochondrial DNA a) Linear double stranded b) Low mutation rate c) Encodes all respiratory chains d) Inherited from mother
Which technology is commonly used to amplify DNA for genetic analysis. A) Sanger sequencing B) CRISPR C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) D) Southern blotting
Which of the following are consequences of nephrotic syndrome. A) Hypoalbuminemia B) Hypercoagulability C) Hypercholesterolemia D) All the above Essay/Long Answer Questions:
Which of the following is associated with Factor V Leiden mutation? a) GI bleeding b) Thromboembolic events c) Haemophilia d) Hemarthrosis
Discuss about clinical features, diagnosis and management of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.
Enumerate the acute complications of Type II diabetes mellitus. Explain pathogenesis, clinical features, and management of Diabetic Keto Acidosis (DKA).
Describe the etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Megaloblastic Anaemia.
Enumerate staging of CKD. Write in detail about etiopathogenesis and management of CKD.
Discuss the clinical features, complications and management of poisoning by OrganoPhosphorus compounds.
Write the etiology, clinical features, investigations and management of Thyrotoxicosis.
Define and write causes of pyrexia of unknown origin.
Write a short note on Professionalism.
Viper Bite.
Write a short note on management of hyponatraemia.
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).
X linked inheritance.
Write a short note on Tumor Markers.
Benzodiazepine poisoning- clinical features and management.
Write a short note on clinical features and management of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI).
Organo Phosphorous poisoning.
Management of Diabetic keto Acidosis (DKA) and its complications.
Write a short note on Blood transfusion reaction.
Syncope.
Write a note on Hepatitis-B and its management.
Write a short note on Sepsis and Septic shock.
Discuss medico legal socio economic and ethical issues pertaining to Organ Donation.
Haemophilia B.
Write a short note on Tumor lysis syndrome.
Portal Hypertension.
Define Informed Consent and when it is considered Invalid.
Gene therapy.
Intermediate syndrome.
Pheochromocytoma.
Triad of Plummer-Vinson Syndrome.
Drug induced liver injury.
Acute Transfusion Reaction.
Write three important clinical features of Turner’s syndrome.
Clinical features and causes of Polycythemia Vera.
Biguanides.
Type-I Hypersensitivity reaction.
Write causes of Dysuria.
Disseminated intravascular Coagulation.
Mention any three clinical features of Cushing’s disease.
Management of Sickle Cell Anaemia.
Factors influencing myocardial oxygen supply and demand are all EXCEPT A. Heart rate B. Blood pressure C. Duration of systole D. Hemoglobin level
A 50-year-old gentleman had a long flight of 16 hours. Following the journey, he had developed swelling of right leg, sudden onset breathlessness. Which of the following is the first line diagnostic test for this condition? A. High resolution CT scan of chest B. CT Pulmonary angiography C. Bronchoscopy D. Trans-bronchial Lung Biopsy
In root causes of diagnostic error in studies-examples of system error are all EXCEPT A. Inadequate diagnostic support B. Error prone processes C. Error in reasoning D. Poor team communication
A 35-year-old man presented with palpitations and easy fatigability. After evaluation in the emergency ward, he was given injection Adenosine and he responded for the same. Of these, which arrhythmia is most likely the one for which he received the treatment A. Ventricular tachycardia B. A V blocks C. Supra ventricular tachycardia D. Ventricular Fibrillation
Which of the following represents the tumor burden of necrosis A. CEA B. Ferritin C. LDH D. ESR
All are risk factors for suicide EXCEPT A. Unemployment B. Drug or alcohol misuse C. Female sex D. Chronic physical ill health
Calcium channel blocker causing tachycardia is A. Nifedepine B. Verapamil C. Diltiazem D. Flunarizine
Which of the following is a prion disease? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Huntington’s chorea C. Menke’s kinki hair disease D. Steel Richardson’s syndrome
All are mediators in key regulation of bone remodelling EXCEPT A. PTH B. Thyroid hormone C. Rankl D. Testosterone
Which among the following is not a feature of Tetralogy of Fallot? A. Pulmonary Stenosis B. Ventricular septal defect C. Right Ventricular hypertrophy D. Aortic Stenosis
Macrocytic picture in peripheral smear is seen in all EXCEPT A. Vit B12 deficiency B. Hypothyroidism C. Methotrexate toxicity D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
All these are somatoform disorders EXCEPT A. Chronic fatigue syndrome B. Somatoform autonomic dysfunction C. Dissociative conversion reaction D. Eating disorders
SCHOBER ‘S test is useful in A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Reactive arthritis
Antibodies to glomerular basement membrane are seen in which of the following condition? A. Good pasture’s syndrome B. Membranous nephropathy C. Wegener’s granulomatosis D. Churg Strauss disease
Which is false statement about RA factor A. Normal healthy people cannot be positive for RA factor B. In Primary Sjogrens, 90 percent are RA positive C. In Infective endocarditis 40 percent are RA positive D. In Tuberculosis 15 percent are RA positive
35 year old lady presented to OPD with complaints of weight loss, diarrhea and dyspepsia. Blood investigations revealed iron deficiency anemia. Endoscopy done showed villous atrophy over duodenal and jejunal mucosa. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Coeliac disease B. Duodenal ulcer C. Gastric carcinoma D. Protein loosing enteropathy
Pharmocological prophylaxis for Venous thromboembolism are all EXCEPT A. Low molecular weight heparin B. Fondaparinux C. Apixaban D. Aspirin
Circulating immune complexes causing glomerulonephritis are all EXCEPT A. Cryoglobulinemia B. Serum sickness C. Endocarditis D. Tuberculosis
Examples of drugs associated with drawl effects are all EXCEPT A. Selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitors B. Opiods C. Barbiturates D. Amphetamine
Which of the following drug is used in the treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia? A. Doxycycline B. Co-trimoxazole C. Amoxicillin D. Azithromycin
All of the following are imprinting disorders EXCEPT A. Beck with Wiedemann syndrome B. Praderwilli syndrome C. Angelman syndrome D. Hypoparathyroidism
Name the antidote used in benzodiazepine poisoning A. Naloxone B. Atropine C. Sodium thiosulphate D. Flumazenil
Which is True about sterile Pyuria A. Neutrophils in urine with culture negative B. Tuberculosis does not cause sterile pyuria C. Lymphocytes in urine with culture negative D. Urine routine normal but culture positive
Which of the following is NOT a Red flag symptom of malignancy? A. Unexplained weight loss B. Change in bowel habit C. Fever D. Bone pain
Diseases associated with triplet expansions are all EXCEPT A. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 B. Machado joseph disease C. Spinobulbar muscular atrophy D. Dubin johnson syndrome
A 50-year-old gentleman presented with progressive ascending paralysis of all the four limbs for 3-4 days. On examination he had bilateral lower motor neuron type facial paralysis. Which among the following is the preferred treatment? A. Glucocorticoids B. Streptokinase C. Immunoglobulins D. Aspirin + Statins
Which of the following is true about functions of macrophages A. Stimulate the chronic phase response B. Stimulate the monocyte maturation and chemotaxis C. Microbial killing through oxidative and nonoxidative mechanisms D. Up regulation of inflammatory cytokine
A known case of rheumatic heart disease complains of fever for 30 days. On examination, she had tachycardia pallor and grade 2 clubbing and had a pan-systolic murmur at the apex. What could be the likely diagnosis? A. Acute Myocardial infarction. B. Infective endocarditis C. Acute Pericarditis D. Dissection of Aorta
Miliary diffuse shadowing is seen in all EXCEPT A. Sarcoidosis B. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia C. Malignancy D. Bacterial pneumonia
Cause of pruritus in pregnancy are all EXCEPT A. Acute cholestasis of pregnancy B. Pemphigoid gestation C. Polymorphic eruption D. Porphyria
Vitamin which causes peripheral neuropathy in both deficiency and excess A. Folate B. Pyridoxine C. B 12 D. C
Which of the following vaccines should be offered to patients of COPD? A. Meningococcal vaccine B. Pneumococcal vaccine C. Zoster vaccine D. Typhoid vaccine
Which is NOT the lab marker of inflammation A. ESR B. CRP C. Plasma viscosity D. Red cell distribution width
40 year old male came to medicine OPD for general health checkup and was found to be hypertensive. On further evaluation he was found to have B/L renal artery stenosis. Which antihypertensive should be avoided in above case? A. Nifedipine B. Enalapril C. Furosemide D. Metoprolol
Risk factors for fall in elderly are all EXCEPT A. Postural hypertension B. Parkinson’s disease C. Visual impairment D. Age more than 80 yrs
Features of intravascular hemolysis are all EXCEPT A. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia B. Reticulocytosis C. Increased methaemalbumin D. Increased haptoglobin
Causes of proximal muscle weakness are all EXCEPT A. Hypocalcemia B. Sarcoid C. Carnitine deficiency D. Polymyositis
“Red cell casts” are characteristic of which of the following conditions? A. Acute glomerular nephritis B. Chronic kidney disease C. Nephrotoxic acute tubular necrosis D. Interstitial nephritis
The normal Pulmonary artery systolic pressure is A. 10-14 mm Hg B. 15-30 mm Hg C. 40-50 mm Hg D. 100-120 mm Hg
A male patient with tall stature, lean habitus small testes, gynecomastia and azoospermia was being evaluated for a cardiovascular disease With the above signs a karyotyping was also done what is the most likely karyotype in this patient. A. 45 X0 B. 47 XXY C. 45 XXY D. 47 X0
In Erythema nodosum -provoking factors are all EXCEPT A. Pregnancy B. Oral Contraceptive Pills C. Bacteria D. Cephalosporins
Which of the following Factor does NOT suggest panic disorder? A. Hyperventilation B. Hypoventilation C. Agoraphobia D. Paresthesias in fingers
False statement about interpretation of urea and electrolyte result is A. Chloride levels generally change in parallel with plasma sodium B. Sodium levels largely reflect changes in water balance C. Bicarbonate is normal in acid base disorders D. Creatinine can increase with increase in people with high muscle mass
A 25 year old lady presented with a cough with expectoration for 3 years. On examination she had grade 3 clubbing. Chest examination revealed coarse leathery crepitations in right intrascapular areas. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis? A. COPD B. Pulmonary tuberculosis C. Bronchiectasis D. Bronchial Asthma
All are causes of atrial fibrillation EXCEPT A. Sinoatrial disease B. Pericardial disease C. Chest infection D. Hypothyroidism
A 36 year old male patient was being evaluated for weakness of limbs and was diagnosed to have Pure motor Neuropathy. Which among the following heavy metal poisoning can result in motor neuropathy A. Lead B. Aluminum C. Arsenic D. Cadmium
Which is not a feature of Acanthosis nigricans A. Indicates insulin resistance B. Can be associated with malignancy C. Does not regress with weight loss D. Seen in flexures
Cause of intra cerebral haemorrhage are all EXCEPT A. AV malformations B. Amphetamine C. Coagulopathy D. Atrial fibrillation
Complications of obesity are all EXCEPT A. Obstructive sleep apnoea B. Osteoporosis C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease D. Coagulopathy
“Koplick’s spot” are seen in which of the following condition? A. Rubella B. Measles C. Mumps D. Dengue fever
ECG features more in favour of ventricular tachycardia are all EXCEPT A. Extreme right axis deviation B. Capture /fusion beats C. Very broad QRS complexes D. AV dissociation
A 60-year-old female hypertensive was evaluated and found to have grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy changes. Which retinal change is suggestive of the above? A. Macular edema B. Vitrealhaemorrhages C. Siver wiring D. Cotton wool exudates
Examples of hyperkinetic movement disorders are all EXCEPT A. Tremor B. Athetosis C. Tic D. Catatonia
Chronic non pulmonary complications of pulmonary tuberculosis are all EXCEPT A. Empyema necessitans B. Enteritis C. Anorectal disease D. Pharyngitis
Causes of salivary gland swelling are all EXCEPT A. Viral infection B. Sjogrens C. Calculi D. Rhuematoid arthritis
Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs can cause optic neuritis? A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol
High anion gap in toxin consumption-examples include all EXCEPT A. Ethanol B. Iron C. Lead D. Cyanide
A 30 year old male with no prior comorbidities presented with complaints of recurrent headache, palpitations and sweating. On examination he was found to have high BP recordings. Further investigations revealed high urinary metanephrines. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Phaeochromocytoma B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia C. Primary hyperaldosteronism D. Cushing’s Syndrome
Which is NOT a feature of Restless leg syndrome A. Symptoms can spread to upper limbs B. All of them need treatment with dopamine agonists C. Secondary Restless leg syndrome needs treatment of cause D. Affects 10 percent of adults
Tremors are NOT caused by A. Theophylline B. Caffeine C. Primidone D. Lithium
Target organ damage in hypertension
Define and classify obesity
Discuss the clinical features of leprosy.
Describe clinical features and treatment of corrosive poisoning
Define hypertensive Emergency and Urgency
Enumerate the causes of stroke in young
Enumerate the red flags in headache
Describe management of thyrotoxic crisis
Discuss post exposure prophylaxis of HIV.
Describe management of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Enumerate causes of Chronic Diarrhea.
Classify PUO(Pyrexia of unknown origin) and enumerate the causes.
Enumerate the respiratory causes of clubbing
Enumerate the functions of liver
Mention three oral hypoglycaemic drugs
List the causes of chronic kidney disease.
Modified Lights Criteria.
Discuss the role of Cardiac enzyme estimation in Acute coronary syndromes
Philadelphia chromosome
Anti-fungal agents
Enumerate the adverse effects of SGLT2 Inhibitors.
Complications during dialysis.
Describe the components of Nephritic syndrome
X-linked conditions.
What is panic disorder? Which phobia is often associated with panic disorder?
Diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa
Complications of enteric fever.
Describe the treatment of Urinary tract infections
Explain normal splitting of second heart sound and mention causes for its wide splitting.
Describe the mechanism of action with examples for SGLT2 inhibitors
Symptoms of Pheochromocytoma
Enumerate the causes of metabolic acidosis.
Treatment of Urticaria.
Define, classify and Grade hypertension
Drugs in liver abscess (Amoebic)
Pleotropic effects of statins
Describe clinical features of BERI BERI
Cardinal features suggestive leprosy.
Enumerate the indications of invasive ventilation
E.C.G findings in Atrial fibrillation.
Which clinical sign demonstrates severity of epithelial detachment in toxic epidermal necrolysis and how to elicit it?
Clinical features of Stevens Johnson syndrome
Mention six causes of clubbing.
Describe management and rehabilitation of degenerative joint disease in elderly
Mention four classes of antihypertensive drugs with one example each. What is the drug of choice in diabetic hypertensive patient and why?
Describe the etiopathogenesis of coronary artery disease
Mention three causes of raised Jugular venous pulse
Describe the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia.
Classify acid base disorders with examples
Impotence
Secondary causes of headache
Enumerate the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy.
Components of TOF.
Discuss the management of MDR TB
Urinary casts and its clinical significance.
What is Dressler syndrome? How to treat it?
What are the complications of prosthetic cardiac valves?
Causes of hematuria.
Enumerate the ethical issues in care of elderly
What characteristics help differentiating bronchial asthma from COPD?
Enumerate the indications of heart transplantation
Causes of mid diastolic murmurs in mitral area
Enumerate the clinical signs of lobar pneumonia.
Chancroid.
Enumerate causes of hyperkalemia
Causes of continuous murmur
Mention three antitubercular drugs.
Describe clinical features of envenoming by VIPERIDAE
Causes of Hirsuitism.
Describe the relationship between infections and cancer
Diagnostic criteria for Diabetes Mellitus.
What are the complications of atrial fibrillation?
Any three causes of secondary hypertension with one relevant investigation to diagnose each condition
Mention six clinical signs of aortic regurgitation.
Describe the treatment of tension type headache
What are the public health measures which helped in containing Covid 19 infection in India?
Discuss modified Dukes criteria
Mention three complications of portal hypertension
Describe the management of Alcohol dependence syndrome.
Diagnosis for H.pylori infection.
Describe the clinical features of Niacin deficiency
Causes of pleural effusion right side
Classification of adverse drug reactions
Enumerate the complications of ST SEGMENT ELEVATION MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION
Types of Insulin’s.
Describe the treatment of leprosy
Functions of macrophages.
Which congenital heart disease is associated with wide fixed splitting of second heart sound and why?
What are the indicators of severe life-threatening exacerbation of asthma?
Drugs used for the treatment of Hyperkelemia.
Describe aetiopathogenesis of HIV related malignancies
What is pharmacogenomics and its application in medicine?
Describe drug to drug interaction with examples
Three drugs used in the treatment of Parkinson disease
Enlist dermatological manifestations of internal malignancies.
Causes for massive splenomegaly.
Classify and give examples of antihypertensive drugs
Horner’s syndrome
Treatment of brucellosis
Enlist the etiologies of Atrial Fibrillation
Endocrine emergencies.
Describe the clinical features of Steven Johnson syndrome
Classical clinical features of Parkinsonism.
What is the causative organism of condyloma acuminatum and how to treat it?
Mention salient clinical features of chronic cor pulmonale
Indication of ACE inhibitors.
Enumerate the indications of lumbar puncture
Significance of C-reactive protein.
Describe the clinical features and treatment of hypokalemia
Three indications for haemodialysis
Enlist the radiological features of Emphysema.
Treatment for Bipolar Mood disorder.
Enumerate the pituitary hormones
Lepra reaction
Alport’s syndrome
Describe the physiological mechanisms which prevent gastro-esophageal reflux.
Peutz Jeghers syndrome.
Describe the complications of blood transfusion
What are the sexually transmitted diseases presenting with painful genital ulcers and lymphadenopathy?
Causes and treatment of painful genital ulcers developing after unprotected sex with commercial sex worker
Drugs used to treat COVID-19.
Describe the environmental factors causing malignancy
What is viral load and how it is used in HIV patients?
Describe the cardiovasular examination findings in mitral regurgitation
Treatment of tension pneumothorax
Discuss the treatment of depression.
Treatment for SARS Cov2 infection.
Describe the treatment of acute gout
Indications of IV gamma globulin
Enumerate the treatment of Irritable bowel syndrome.
Types of Jaundice.
Describe the treatment of alcohol abuse disorder
Clinical manifestations of allergy.
How can antibody measurement be used to indicate an active infection?
Diagnostic criteria of systemic lupus erythematosus
Noncirrhotic causes of portal hypertension.
Enumerate the drugs used in MDR tuberculosis
Stevens-Johnson syndrome treatment.
Clinical Features of Henoch-Schoenlein purpura
Somogyi phenomenon.
CSF finding in pyogenic meningitis
Treatment of nuerocysticercosis
Hall mark lab results indicative of Acute Haemolysis.
Differential diagnosis of central chest pain.
Mention three clinical features of organophosphorus poisoning.
Etiological agent and mode of transmission of scabies
Treatment of acute gouty arthritis.
Mention Light’s criteria for distinguishing exudative from transudative pleural effusion.
Three causes of massive splenomegaly
Causes for Jaundice.
Indications for haemodialysis
Autoimmune hepatitis
Modified Jones criteria.
Raynaud’s syndrome.
What stages of HIV life cycle are targets for therapy?
Mention types of biomedical waste in a hospital
Treatment of bronchial asthma.
Mention three classes of immunosuppressants used in transplantation with one example for each.
Nephrotic syndrome
Hypertensive emergencies
Psoriasis
Chronic complications of diabetes mellitus
Hyperkalemia
Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
Vitamin D deficiency
Describe the clinical features and management of Steven Johnson syndrome.
Obstructive sleep Apnoea.
Bulimia Nervosa.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Describe the management of nonketotic hyperosmolar state in diabetes mellitus
Clinical features of Hypothyroidism
Discuss the clinical features, and management of Bronchial asthma.
Clinical features and treatment of Tropical Eosinophilia.
Classify acute coronary syndromes and describe the treatment of unstable angina
A 65-year-old gentleman, known diabetic on treatment came with history of burning sensation of both upper limb and lower limb with decreased light touch sensation and loss of ankle reflexes. On investigations his fasting blood sugars were 200mg/dl and Hba1c was 10. Mention the possible diagnosis. • Describe the acute and chronic complications of diabetes mellitus
Clinical features and management of Brucellosis.
Define and classify Migraine. Describe the treatment
Tumor markers and their clinical relevance.
Aetiology and clinical features of basal cell carcinoma of skin.
Mention drugs used in management of psychosis and their major adverse effects
Clinical features and treatment of hypothyroidism.
Describe the clinical features and management of Weil’s disease
Write short essay on obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Describe and discuss compensatory mechanisms involved in heart failure
Treatment of MDR tuberculosis
Describe the clinical feature and management of pulmonary tuberculosis.
Clinical features and treatment of Depression.
Discuss the medicolegal, socioeconomic and ethical issues of Organ donation
Mood disorders
Sero-Negative arthritis
• Discuss the Extra articular manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Classify Pneumonia and discuss its complications
Clinical features and management of Anaphylaxis.
Inheritance and genetic counseling of haemophilia.
Inheritance and genetic counseling of thalassemia
Seronegative arthritis.
Describe the GOLD’s criteria and management of chronic bronchitis
Mention common causes of delirium in adults and briefly describe its clinical features.
Describe the clinical features and management of thiamine deficiency
Iron deficiency anaemia
Discuss the etiology, clinical features, and management of Polycystic kidney disease.
Clinical features and treatment of Paracetamol poisoning.
Describe the clinical features of severe under nutrition in adults
Anti thyroid drugs
• Write a note on Clinical features and management of Hypothyroidism
Clinical presentation and treatment of Tetany.
Describe the principles of Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART)
Complications of Plasmodium Falciparum Malaria.
What is the clinical manifestation of mania? Write a note on lithium carbonate.
Causes and clinical features of hypocalcaemia
Clinical features and management of subarchnoid haemorrhage.
Describe and discuss relationship between CD4 count and risk of opportunistic infection in HIV
Differential diagnosis of Retrosternal chest pain.
Enumerate the viruses causing hepatitis, describe clinical features and treatment of acute viral Hepatitis A
A 40-year-old gentleman presented with fatigue and generalized weakness for 4 months. His hemoglobin was 6 gram/dL, mean corpuscular volume was 106 fL, leucocyte count, and platelet count were normal. He had knuckle pigmentation. What is the likely diagnosis? Describe the management of this condition.
Central nervous system manifestations in HIV.
Describe calcium homeostasis and treatment of Hypercalcemia
Fluorosis
Write a note on Clinical features and management of organophosphorous poisoning
Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis.
Describe the management of Acute ischemic stroke
Clinical features and management of Organophosphorous compound poisoning.
Clinical features and treatment of pulmonary embolism.
Clinical features and treatment of frost bite
Modified Jones criteria for rheumatic fever.
Define and Classify Pyrexia of unknown origin. Enumerate the causes.
What are the recommended antibacterial therapy for community acquired pneumonia?
Discuss medicolegal, sociocultural, professional and ethical issues pertaining to medical negligence
Urinary tract infection
Describe the ECG changes and management of Hyperkalemia.
Clinical features and treatment of Psoriasis.
Define and classify hepatic encephalopathy, describe its treatment.
Define Acute coronary syndrome. Mention the classification of Acute coronary syndrome
Presenting features of Cushing’s Syndrome.
Describe and classify pathophysiological causes of Acute kidney injury
Clinical features and treatment of cobra bite.
Clinical features and treatment of viper bite
Cerebral malaria.
Discuss various tests for iron deficiency anemia and its interpretation
Complications of pulmonary tuberculosis.
Describe the management of oesophageal variceal bleed
Ulcerative colitis
Discuss the causes and prevention of falls in elderly.
Directly Observed Treatment Short Course (DOTS) therapy in Pulmonary Tuberculosis.
A 30 year male with history of alcohol abuse comes to Emergency room with hematemesis- describe the causes and outline the management of hematemesis.
Organophosphorus poisoning
Describe the mechanism of action, types and adverse effects of drugs used in management of Dyslipidemia.
ADPKD clinical features diagnosis management.
Describe the indications of Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. If the bone marrow biopsy showed pancytopenia, discuss its causes.
What are the treponemal and non treponemal tests for syphilis? And mention differences between them.
A patient on four drug, first line anti-tubercular treatment in the last one month presents with nausea and vomiting. What is likely cause? What are the other complications of antitubercular drugs?
Describe the differences between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
Differential diagnosis for ulcers over genital area
Discuss the medical emergencies in Rhuematoid arthritis
Causes of secondary hypertension.
Describe the management of Rheumatoid arthritis
Proton pump inhibitors
Anti-microbial resistance
Define Obesity and mention the measures of obesity
Clinical features of Weil’s disease and its management.
Discuss aetiopathology, management and rehabilitation of visual loss in elderly.
Clinical features of DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis) and management.
Aluminium phosphide poisoning, clinical features and treatment.
Mention principles of pharmacotherapy in elderly
Irritable bowel syndrome.
Discuss management of accidental needlestick injury in a house surgeon during phlebotomy.
Discuss the causes of metabolic acidosis
Describe the clinical features and management of schizophrenia.
Clinical features and treatment for Lepra Reactions.
Describe the initial approach to the stabilization of a patient who presents with poisoning
Laboratory diagnosis in Typhoid
Laboratory diagnosis of leishmaniasis
Discuss medico-legal and ethical issues aspects of assisted dying
Describe clinical features and management of Bipolar disorder
Definition and management of status epilepticus.
What is T score? And mention its clinical utility.
What are the indications for post exposure prophylaxis with immunoglobulins?
Describe the clinical features and management of Depression
What are the types of psoriasis? Discuss systemic therapy of psoriasis.
Clinical features of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy.
Drugs used in Parkinsonism
Turner’s syndrome
Anorexia Nervosa.
What is lung compliance and give examples of respiratory diseases with increased and reduced compliance.
What are the indications and methods of oxygen administration?
Discuss risk factors for fall in elderly and targeted interventions.
Causes of raised intracranial tension
Management of Grave’s disease.
Clinical presentation of scabies and its treatment.
What are the causes of haemoptysis in mitral stenosis?
What are the causes of haemoptysis in a patient with past history of tuberculosis?
Clinical features and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.
A farmer has been found unconscious in the field with a bottle of poison besides him. His pupils are pinpoint, breath smells of kerosene like odour and pulse rate is 54/min. What is the most likely diagnosis? And how to manage him?
A 32 year gentleman presents to Emergency room with sudden onset headache and diaphoresis O/E-BP-220/130 mm hg, papilloedema present, concious, oriented a. Discuss the diagnosis and treatment b. Enumerate the causes of secondary hypertension c. Enumerate the investigations of Hypertension in young
Describe the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of Bronchiectasis
50-year-old gentleman presented with sudden onset of weakness of right upper and lower limb. He had deviation of mouth to left side. On examination, he was unable to speak and power in right upper and lower limb was 2/5 and extensor plantar reflex on right side. a) Discuss the diagnosis, etiopathogenesis and management of this condition?
Discuss etiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of Acute Infective Endocarditis.
A 50 year old male with Diabetes Mellitus and Hypertension presents to Emergency room with dyspnea of 4 months duration, which has worsened since 2 days. He often wakes up from sleep due to difficulty in breathing. On examination his JVP is 8 cm of water, he has bilateral pitting pedal edema, and has bibasal crepitations. a. Identify the condition and substantiate b. Enumerate the precipitating factors of the condition c. Describe the management
Describe etiology, clinical features, laboratory diagnosis and treatment of acute viral hepatitis A.
Describe etiology, clinical features, investigations and management of Acute Bacterial Meningitis.
A 56-year-old gentleman, known case of hypertension and diabetes presented with history of exertional breathlessness since 1 month. On examination, jugular venous pulse was raised, there was bilateral pitting pedal edema and tender hepatomegaly. No history of asthma and COPD a. Discuss the probable diagnosis b. Describe the clinical features and outline the main pillars of pharmacological therapy in these patients.
Describe the aetiology pathophysiology clinical features complications and management of Dengue Fever.
A 50 year female comes to Emergency room with acute onset of breathlessness and cough from 2 days. She gives history of exposure to biogas fuel and repeated episodes of such cough and dyspnea during rainy and winter seasons for last 3 years a. Discuss the differential diagnosis with supporting points b. Describe the management c. Enumerate the complications
Describe the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, complications and management of Pulmonary Tuberculosis.
A 58-year-old male chronic smoker has presented with progressive exertional breathlessness, orthopnea and episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea since 1 month. On examination he has bilateral pedal edema, tachycardia, gallop rhythm and fine basal crackles. What is the most probable diagnosis? Mention four important conditions leading to this condition. Discuss diagnostic investigations and outline treatment of above patient.
Mention the mitral valve diseases. Aetiology, clinical features, management and complications of mitral stenosis
Describe etiology, clinical features and management of community acquired pneumonia.
35 year lady, with no comorbidities is brought to Emergency room with weakness of left half of the body since 1 day a. Discuss the differential diagnosis b. Describe the management
Discuss aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and treatment of infective endocarditis.
A farmer 45 years male is brought to casualty in a state of unconsciousness o/e-constricted pupil,pulse-50/min,bp-100/60 mmhg,unconcious,rr-30/min, typical smell of pesticide present a. Discuss probable diagnosis and substantiate b. Describe the management of this patient c. Enumerate common poisons and their antidotes
Describe aetiology, clinical features and management of bacterial meningitis
Describe the etiology, clinical features, management, and complications of Falciparum Malaria.
Discuss etiology, pathology, clinical features and management of Acute Pyogenic Meningitis
A 70 years male is admitted in ward with diabetic ketoacidosis and is recovering, now due for discharge. Suddenly he is found unconscious in a pool of sweat by family members. On examination his pulse rate is 110/min,BP is 120/70 mm Hg. a. Identify the condition-give differentials b. Discuss the management of this patient c. Enumerate the acute and chronic complications of Diabetes mellitus.
Write etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of hypothyroidism.
Describe types of cardio myopathies, their etiology, clinical features and management.
Define Cirrhosis of Liver. Discuss the etiology, clinical features and complications of Cirrhosis of Liver
Enumerate the causes of Cirrhosis of Liver, clinical features of Liver Cell failure and management of Acute Fulminant Hepatic failure.
A 30 year old male, farmer comes to OPD with fever, body pains and fatigue of 5 days duration. On examination he is febrile, looks toxic, Hess test is positive, conjunctiva is congested, he has mild hepato splenomegaly. a. Discuss the differential diagnosis with supporting points b. Describe the management c. Discuss the differentials for fever with rashes.
Discuss the aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical features and management of Rheumatoid Arthritis.
A 45-year-old man presents with history of fever, dry cough and chest pain on the right side since three weeks. His examination reveals tracheal shift to left, reduced movement and dull note on percussion in right side of chest. What is the most probable diagnosis? How to confirm diagnosis? Discuss his treatment.
Discuss the etiology, clinical features, treatment and complications of community acquired pneumonia
Define and classify anaemias, explain in details etiology, clinical features and management of Megaloblastic anaemia.
50 year old man with no comorbidities comes to Emergency room with cough and fever since 5 days, expectoration since 2 days, dyspnea since 1 day. On examination he is febrile, respiratory rate is 30/min, BP is 80/60 mm Hg, SpO2 is 80 percent with room air, Respiratory system examination reveals bronchial breathing in right infrascapular area a. Discuss the diagnosis b. Describe the management c. Describe the CURB 65 criteria
Discuss aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of Bronchogenic carcinoma.
Myasthenia gravis
Metabolic syndrome
Adjustment disorder
Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome.
Myxedema coma
Depression
Respiratory causes of clubbing.
Treatment of hypercalcemia
Clinical features of vitamin D deficiency
Guttate psoriasis
Pulmonary hypertension
Management of falciparum malaria
Causes of metabolic acidosis.
Neurotoxic snake bite
Inflammatory bowel diseases
Treatment of migraine.
Basic life support
Management of Parkinson’s disease.
Diagnosis of multiple myeloma
Obesity
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Heat stroke
Diagnostic criteria for Rheumatoid arthritis
Components of AETCOM
Role of Physician as a communicator
Iatrogenic Cushing syndrome
Marfan syndrome
Atrial fibrillation
Causes of acute kidney injury
Hyponatremia
Three causes of generalized lymphadenopathy
Acanthosis Nigricans.
Clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome
Causes of chronic diarrhoea.
Bipolar affective disorder
Renal Replacement therapy.
Post exposure prophylaxis of rabies.
Components of metabolic syndrome
Megaloblastic anemia
What are the causes of Hypertension? Describe in detail about the clinical signs and symptoms, complications and management of hypertension.
45-year-old chronic smoker presented with cough, right sided chest pain and streaky haemoptysis since 3 weeks. On examination, he had engorged neck veins and weakness of small muscles of right hand. • What is your probable diagnosis • How do you confirm the diagnosis • What are the complications of the condition • How do you manage him
Mention Etiology, clinical features and management of Acute Viral ament of Hepatitis-A
A 30-year-old female presented with inability to move right upper and lower limbs since 6 hours and inability to speak. a) Discuss the differential diagnosis b) How will you investigate c) Treatment options
A 50 year old man presents with fever, fatigue, anorexia and weight loss since 2 months. He has productive cough and hemoptysis. On examination he has hyper pigmentation of palms and soles, a B.P. of 80/50 mm Hg and right pulmonary apical crackles. Answer the following. • What is your probable diagnosis • How will you confirm your diagnosis • How will you treat the disease • What are the complications of this condition
A 25-year-old female present with malar rash and multiple joint pain since two years History of recurrent abortions since two years. Now presents with weakness of left upper and lower limb since two days. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis. b) Describe clinical signs of this condition. c) How will you confirm the diagnosis. d) How will you manage this condition.
A 24-year-old man who is diagnosed to have heart disease, comes with history of fever of 3 weeks duration. On examination he has clubbing, splinter hemorrhages and splenomegaly. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Enumerate all the other clinical signs of this condition c) Explain about modified Duke’s criteria and other investigations d) How do you treat this patient e) What are the complications of this condition
Write the causative agents, clinical features, investigations and management of pyogenic meningitis
52-year-old male with history of previously treated tuberculosis presented with haemoptysis since 2 days. On examination, bronchial breathing and coarse crepitations over right infraclavicular area. • What is your probable diagnosis • How do you investigate the condition • How do you treat the condition • How to prevent further episodes
A 45-year-old man who consumes alcohol regularly presents with altered sensorium and vomiting of blood since the last two days. He has abdominal distension since the last 8 months a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Write briefly about the pathophysiology of this condition c) Enumerate all the clinical signs of this condition d) How do you investigate this patient e) How do you treat this patient f) What are the complications of this condition
A 65-year-old male chronic smoker comes to the emergency room with retrosternal chest discomfort, associated with sweating and breathing difficulty since 30 minutes. a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) What are the differential diagnoses c) What will be the clinical features on examination of this patient d) How will you confirm the diagnosis e) Treatment of this patient in the emergency room and long term management
A 20 years old lady presented with decreased urine output of less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr for the last 12 hours. She had diarrhea and vomiting for the last 2 days. Her BP was 90/70 and pulse 108/ml. Answer the following: • What is your diagnosis • How will you investigate this patient • How will you manage this patient • What are the complications
A 45-year-old man c/o sudden weakness of the right upper and lower limbs with visual problems and slurring of speech since one day. Next day he walked into OPD for evaluation with no residual neurological defects. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Enumerate the risk factors c) Write the investigations to be done on this patient d) Discuss the management of this condition
A 28-year male patient was admitted with high grade fever with chills for 5 days. Patient had retro-orbital pain, skin rashes and gum bleed on presentation". Answer the following. • What is your differential diagnosis. • Discuss the etiology and clinical phases of any one of these diseases. • What are the investigations to be done on this patient. • Discuss treatment.
A 45-year-old man who is a chronic smoker and hypertensive, comes with history of severe chest pain since the last 30 minutes. The pain is radiating to the jaw and left arm and is associated with palpitations a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Describe the etiopathology of this condition c) How do you investigate this patient d) How do you treat this patient e) What are the complications of this condition
A 55-year-old man chronic smoker presented with sudden onset of breathlessness, cough with pink frothy sputum since one day, also associated few episodes of breathlessness during night times. On examination – tachypnea, tachycardia and hypertension noted. Spo2 – 90% and LV S3 on osculation • What is the probable diagnosis • Write the causes • Investigations required • Treatment of this condition
A 30-year-old female presents with vomiting, pain abdomen and altered sensorium since morning. patient is known diabetic since 5 years on treatment. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis. b) What are the precipitating factors for this condition c) How do you confirm the diagnosis d) How do you manage this patient e) What complications patient can develop
A 35-year-old female presents with pain and swelling of the small joints of both hands, since five years. On examination there is swan neck deformity and boutonniere deformity in the hands. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition c) Describe the clinical signs of this condition d) How will you confirm the diagnosis e) How will you manage this condition
A 50 years old male chronic alcoholic, smoker, high blood pressure and uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus has presented with central chest pain with sweating for past one hour. His blood pressure is 180/100mm Hg and blood sugar 400 mg/dl. Answer the following: • What is your probable diagnosis • How will you confirm the diagnosis • How will you treat this condition • How will you prevent the recurrence
A 46-year-old female presented with sudden occurrence of severe headache of her life associated with vomiting and giddiness. • List three probable diagnosis • What would be the clinical findings to support any one of your listed diagnosis • Outline the investigations required in this condition • Outline management in the patient
A 60-year-old male who is a chronic smoker, presents with cough and haemoptysis since four months, Pain in right upper limb since two months. On examination patient is cachexic and partial closure of right eye. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis. b) Describe clinical signs of this condition. c) How do you investigate this condition d) What are the risk factors e) How do you manage this patient
38-year-old male presented with palpitations and breathlessness since 6 months. On examination, he had irregular pulse and a middiastolic murmur at mitral area. • what is the likely diagnosis • How do you investigate him • What are the complications of the condition • How do you manage him
28-year-old male presented with history of fever and bony pains since 3 weeks. On examination, he had generalized lymphadenopathy and purpura over his trunk. • What is the probable diagnosis • How will you confirm the diagnosis • Mention the causes and treatment of fever in a neutropenic patient
A 35-year-old male who is a chronic alcoholic presents with yellowish discolouration of eyes, abdominal distension since six months, lower limb swelling since three months, altered sensorium since two days a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis. b) Enumerate all the clinical signs of this condition. c) How do you investigate this patient d) How do you treat this patient e) What are the complications of this condition
A 19 year old female patient presents with puffiness of the face with pedal edema since 15 days. She noticed frothy urine and decreased urine output. On examination her blood pressure is 150/100 mmhg • What is the probable diagnosis. • How will you confirm this disease • Discuss the management of this condition • What are the complication of this condition
A female patient aged 28 years c/o sudden onset of thunderclap headache followed by loss of consciousness reported to the casualty. O/E patient unconscious, her blood pressure is 160/100mmhg and weakness on the left side of the body a) What is the probable diagnosis. How will you diagnose it clinically b) Write the etiology of the condition c) What are the investigations required d) Write the treatment for this condition
A 25-year-old female presents with on and off fever, multiple small joints pain, rashes and recurrent mouth ulcers since 6 months. On examination butterfly rash present on nose with nasolabial fold sparing. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis b) What is the etiopathology of this diagnosis c) Describe clinical signs and diagnostic criteria of this condition d) How will you confirm the diagnosis e) How will you manage this condition
A 72-year-old male presented with history of tremors in both hands, slowing of movements and recurrent falls since 6 months. • What is your probable diagnosis in this case. • What are the causes of falls in the elderly. • Discuss pathogenesis • List two complications of this disease. • How do you manage this case.
20 year old female came with history of fever and joint pains since 2 weeks. On examination, she had splenomegaly and tenderness over knee and sacroiliac joints. She had a skin rash on nose and cheeks. • What is your probable diagnosis • What are the other causes of this presentation • How do you confirm the diagnosis • How do you treat the most probable condition
Define and discuss Etiology, clinical features and management of Community Acquired Pneumonia
A 50-year-old male comes with fever, cough and rusty sputum for 3 days, difficulty in breathing for 1 day. In the emergency room he is febrile, has tachycardia, hypotension and hypoxia. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) What are the expected findings on clinical examination of the respiratory system in this patient c) How will you manage this patient
A 30 year old female presents with an episode of tonic-clonic convulsions. She recently delivered a preterm underweight baby. Patient’s mother noticed a rigid posture, urinary incontinence and tongue bite. On examination she is drowsy, arousable and complains of head ache. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Answer the following. • What is your probable diagnosis • What are the differential diagnosis • How will you confirm the diagnosis • How will you treat this patient
A 50-year-old male presents with sudden onset headache and altered sensorium since morning. Patient is a known hypertensive since 5years with irregular treatment. on examination patient is irritable and neck rigidity is present. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis b) Enumerate clinical signs of this condition c) How do you confirm the diagnosis d) What are the risk factors for the clinical condition e) How do you manage this condition
A 28-year-old lady is diagnosed to have Systemic Lupus Erythematosus a) Describe the clinical features of this condition b) What are the investigations needed to confirm the diagnosis c) What is the treatment of this condition
2)Discuss the Etiology, clinical features, investigations, treatment of-congestive cardiac failure. Write in brief on heart failure with preserved ejection fraction
24-year-old female came with history of multiple joint pains, facial puffiness and malar rash since 8 months. • What is your probable diagnosis • How do you confirm the diagnosis • How do you treat the condition • What are the complications
A 60-year-old man with coronary artery disease is diagnosed to have heart failure a) What are the causes of heart failure b) What are the clinical features of heart failure c) What are the investigations needed to confirm the diagnosis d) What are the treatment modalities
A 30-year-old female has 2 year history of large and small joints pain and swelling which is bilaterally symmetrical and deforming. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Mention the extra-articular manifestations of the disorder c) How will you confirm the diagnosis d) Treatment of the patient
A young male with high risk behaviour had loss of weight, chronic diarrhea and chronic cough. Answer the following: • What is your diagnosis • What are the other causes of this condition • How will you investigate this patient • How will you manage
A 23-year-old male diabetes since 6 years presented with pain abdomen fever since two days. O/E he is conscious, febrile, tachycardic and hypotensive had stopped insulin two days back a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) What are the investigations to be done on this patient c) Name the complication associated with this condition d) Discuss the management of this condition
A 55-year-old farmer was brought to the casualty in altered sensorium.There was an unusual smell. On examination, patient had fasciculations, bilateral crepitations and pupils were miotic" • What is the most probable diagnosis. • Discuss its clinical features. • Discuss the management of this condition. • Discuss the complications.
A 60-year-old man is diagnosed to have right hemiplegia due to thrombotic stroke a) Define stroke b) What are the expected physical signs in this patient c) What are the causes for this condition d) What are the investigations needed to confirm the diagnosis e) What are the treatment modalities for this condition
A 35-year-old woman presented with numbness and weakness of distal lower limbs and this ascends over several days to involve the upper limb and associated with drooping of the one eye. On examination – bilateral weakness and loss of reflexes. No sensory or bladder involvement • What is the differential diagnosis. • What are the complications that can occur • What are the investigations required • How will you manage this case
A 25-year-old male presents with productive cough since three years, haemoptysis since three months on past history of pulmonary tuberculosis of patient has halitosis and clubbing present. patient has central cyanosis. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis. b) Enumerate clinical features of this condition. c) How do you investigate this patient. d) How do you manage this patient. e) What are the complications of this condition.
A 36-year-old man is diagnosed to have right lower lobe pneumonia a) What are the types of pneumonia b) Discuss the etiology of community acquired pneumonia c) Enumerate clinical signs of this condition d) How will you investigate this patient e) How do you treat this condition
A 40 years old male presented with twitching of right upper limb followed by tonic clonic convulsions. On examination patient has tongue bite and post ictal confusion and headache. Answer the following: • What is your diagnosis • Classify seizures • Where is the probable lesion • How will you manage this patient
Middle aged unmarried male came with history of one-month fever and significant weight loss. Examination revealed lymph node enlargement and oral candidiasis. • Most probable diagnosis • Evaluate for alternative diagnosis • Extra pulmonary complications commonly seen • Outline management
A 30-year-old male presents with fever, loose stools and weight loss since three months. On examination patient is cachexic, oral thrush is present and palpable cervical lymph nodes are present. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis. b) Enumerate the clinical features of this condition. c) How do you confirm the diagnosis. d) How do you manage this patient.
16-year-old boy came with puffy face, decreased urine output and smoky urine. He had skin infection recently. • What is the most likely diagnosis. • How do you evaluate for alternative diagnosis. • Mention the complications. • Outline management.
14-year-old girl came with upper abdominal pain and repeated vomiting. She was recently noticed to have polyuria and weight loss. Examination revealed fruity odour in the month apart from severe dehydration. • Most probable diagnosis • Evaluate for alternative possibilities • Management of current complication • Treatment of underlying disease
A 20 year old post-natal women, who delivered one week back , presents with Headache since one week, seizures since two days and altered sensorium since morning. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis b) How do you investigate this patient c) What are the risk factors for this condition d) How do you manage this patient e) What are the complications of this condition
A 64 year old man presented with progressive slowing of all movements since one year with tremors for the last 6 months. On examination his face was expressionless with increased tone in all four limbs • What is the probable diagnosis. • List other clinical signs of this disease • Name other diseases associated with this disease • How will you manage this disease
A 30-year-old lady, mother of 4-year-old child presented with recurrent 2nd and 3rd trimester abortions and mild joint pains. O/E pallor present and butterfly rashes seen on the face a) What is the probable diagnosis. b) Write clinical features of the disease c) Write the investigations d) How do you treat this
A 36-year-old male presents to emergency ward with sudden onset of breathlessness, cough. On examination-Cyanosis, Hypotension, left side decreased breath sounds and hyper resonant note found with deviation of trachea to right side. a) What is the probable diagnosis and differential diagnosis b) Describe etiopathology of this condition c) Enumerate clinical signs of this condition d) How do you confirm the diagnosis e) How do you treat this condition
A 65-year-old female comes to the emergency room with a history of progressive shortness of breath and swelling of both feet since 20 days. • List the probable diagnosis • Discuss etiology of any one of your diagnostic choices • List the clinical findings seen in the condition • Outline the investigations to confirm your diagnosis • Outline the treatment
Substance abuse
Diagnosis of miliary tuberculosis
Clinical features and treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
Anatomy of coronary circulation.
Clinical features of viper snake bite.
Classify poisons and explain about first aid in common poisonings
Reversible Coma
Diabetic keto acidosis
Define and classify pyrexia of unknown origin.
Benzodiazepine poisoning
Deep vein thrombosis
Mention drugs used in obesity.
Major clinical manifestations of portal hypertension
Causes and clinical features of B12 deficiency.
Dengue hemorrhagic fever
Management of hyponatremia
List the opportunistic infections that occur in the lungs of an HIV infected patient.
Clinical features of thiamine deficiency.
Electrocardiographic changes in acute inferior wall myocardial infarction
Treatment of Clostridium difficile infection
Mention clinical signs of vitamin A deficiency in adults
Symptoms of chronic kidney disease
Dengue fever
Management of third degree dog bite.
Complications and treatment of Cerebral Malaria
Drugs causing bone marrow suppression
Clinical features and management of Thyrotoxicosis
Treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Classification of antiarrhythmic drugs.
Treatment of phenobarbitone poisoning
Acute severe asthma
Classic Migraine
CURB-65 criteria in treatment of community acquired pneumonia.
Anxiety disorder
Causes of megaloblastic Anemia
High anion gap metabolic acidosis.
Aetiology of cirrhosis of liver
Treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia.
Acute viral meningitis
Management of hematotoxic snake bite.
Stokes Adams syndrome
Prevention of deep vein thrombosis
Clinical features of organophosphorus poisoning
Acute bacterial meningitis
List four extra intestinal manifestations of ulcerative colitis.
Amoebiasis
Manifestations of paraquat poisoning
Clinical features and management of Lung abscess
Chest X-ray findings in mitral stenosis.
Herpes zoster infection.
Clinical features of hypokalemia.
Leptospirosis
Chorioathetosis
Treatment of Herpes zoster
Acute coronary syndrome
Laboratory tests of Iron deficiency anaemia.
Insulin analogue
Draw and label a diagram of mitral valve apparatus
Draw a neat labeled diagram of the conduction system of the heart.
Heart failure
Causes of dementia
Causes of methaemoglobinemia.
OP compound poisoning
List four organisms causing community acquired pneumonia and mention two complications.
Name insulin analogues
Clinical features of rodenticide poisoning
Treatment of warfarin overdose
Graft versus host disease
Causes of thrombocytopenia
Supra ventricular tachycardia
Electrocution
Which of the following medications is used for rate control in atrial fibrillation? A) Digoxin B) Beta-blockers C) Anticoagulants @medicomama1 D) All of the above
Peritoneal dialysis
Chickenpox
Non ketotic Hyperosmolar Diabetic condition
Clinical features of myxedema coma.
Metabolic syndrome – definition and complications
Clinical features of pellagra
Major depression
Hodgkins lymphoma
Indications of lumbar puncture.
Polycythemia vera
Indications of TMT (Treadmill Test).
Name two bioterrorism agents.
Myeloproliferative disorders
Radiological sings of pulmonary edema
Draw and label jugular venous pulse waves.
Pleural tuberculosis
Acute glomerulonephritis
State two clinical uses and two side effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI)
Causes of hyponatremia.
High altitude pulmonary oedema
Steven Johnson syndrome
Henoch schonlein purpura
Name few autosomal dominant disorders
Acute blood transfusion reactions
MDR Tuberculosis
Define nosocomial infection and list two organisms causing nosocomial infections.
Parkinsonism
Clinical features of depression
Clinical features and diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma
Treatment of acne vulgaris.
Delirium tremens and its treatment.
Bioterrorism
Hepatorenal syndrome
Drugs used in MDR tuberculosis.
Haemodialysis
Drugs used in management of myocardial infarction.
Treatment of psoriasis
Causes of pericarditis.
Pneumothorax
Causes of sinus bradycardia
List four drugs used in the treatment of psoriasis.
Diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis.
Fatty liver
Wipples triad
Post-partum cardiomyopathy
Management of Acute Heart failure
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Encephalitis
DEXA (dual emission x-ray absorptiometry) scan
Causes of tender hepatomegaly
Name the first line anti- tubercular drugs and mention one side effect of each.
Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Evaluation of acute onset breathlessness
Total Parenteral Nutrition
Chest x-ray findings in cardiac failure
Complication of prolonged steroid therapy
Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism
Mention causes of falls in elderly.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Treatment of gout.
Acyclovir
Thyrotoxic crisis
Dexamathasone suppression test.
Crohn’s disease
Antibiotics used in acute bacterial meningitis in adults
Draw and label chest x-ray findings in pulmonary oedema.
Investigation for chromosomal disorder
Hepatitis B infection – serological markers
Causes and management of obesity
A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and a stiff neck. The most likely diagnosis is: A) Tension headache B) Migraine C) Subarachnoid hemorrhage D) Cluster headache
Give two indications and two complications of total parenteral nutrition.
Atypical Neuroleptics
Urticaria
Aluminium Phosphide poisoning
Latest revised Jones criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever.
Tinea versicolor infection.
Ethical principles in medicine
Fat soluble vitamins
Criteria to diagnose hypersplenism.
Skin manifestation of tuberculosis
Prophylaxis management of migraine
Drugs for neuropathic pain.
Electrocardiogram
Addison’s disease
Adverse effects of Amiodarone
Gamma glutamyl transferase
List four causes of ring enhancing cerebral lesions seen on MRI.
Diabetic dermopathy.
Clinical features of cardiac tamponade
Management of potassium level in diabetic ketoacidosis
Enumerate primary immune deficiency disorders
Wernicke’s aphasia
Post exposure prophylaxis for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency
Explain continuous murmur. List two causes.
Grave’s disease
Causes of Proteinuria
H.pylori eradication therapy.
Lab diagnosis of Weil’s syndrome.
Treatment of ventricular tachycardia.
Pemphigus vulgaris
Four examples of cephalosporins
Nail changes in psoriasis
Epilepsy
Causes of delerium
Intercostal drainage.
Mention common organisms causing pneumonia.
Causes of massive splenomegaly
Causes of pulmonary hypertension.
Aphthous ulcer
Interpretation of Serum-Ascites Albumin Gradient (SAAG). Give two causes of ascites with low SAAG.
Clinical features of hypocalcaemia.
Autosomal recessive disorders
Lithium
Management of amoebic hepatitis
Evaluation of hyponatremia
Border line personality disorder
Clubbing
Hemorrhagic viral fevers
Coppersulfate poisoning
Triad of Wernicke encephalopathy.
Urinary abnormality in diabetic kidney disease
Side Effects of antitubercular drugs.
Causes of dry skin (xerosis)
Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome
Interpretation of glycosylated haemoglobin.
Indication of dialysis
Lights criteria in pleural effusion
Newer drugs for hepatitis C
Cushing’s syndrome
Thyrotoxicosis
Treatment of H.pylori infection.
Complications of gastro esophageal reflux disease
Interpretation of serum albumin plural fluid albumin gradient.
Cushing reflex
Infective endocarditis prophylaxis
Adult vaccines
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of multiple sclerosis? A) Progressive muscle weakness B) Relapsing and remitting episodes of neurological deficits C) Presence of positive Babinski sign only D Gradual, steady progression of symptoms without remissions
Diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome
Drug induced causes of macrocytic anemia.
Silhouette’s sign in X – ray chest.
Cardiac tamponade.
Two causes for polyarthritis
Tricyclic Antidepressants
Management of acute gout
NYHA classification of dyspnea
Key points in management of diabetic ketoacidosis.
Newer drugs for hepatitis B
Classify shock.
Food poisoning
Clinical features of Budd chiari syndrome.
Two causes of subarachnoid hemorrhage
Opportunistic infection in AIDS when CD4 count <50
What are antiphospholipid antibodies (APLA). Enumerate four clinical features of APLA syndrome.
Treatment of left ventricular failure.
Newer anticoagulants
Clinical features of rabies
Crystal arthropathy
Management of acute ischemic stroke
List the vaccines recommended for splenectomised.
Coma
Non metastatic manifestations of Bronchogenic carcinoma
Causes of mid diastolic murmur.
Clinical features of cerebellar disease.
Tension pneumothorax.
Components of Felty’s syndrome
ECG in Hypokalemia
Gastrointestinal manifestations of systemic sclerosis
Bell’s phenomenon
Complications of snake bite.
Indications of beta blocker
Potts paraplegia
Discuss prophylaxis of migraine.
Urine findings in acute Glomerulonephritis
Symptoms of bronchiectasis
Clinical features of irritable bowel syndrome.
Three respiratory causes of sudden onset of dyspnea
Lab features of hepatocellular jaundice
Draw and label of mitral valve apparatus.
Clinical features of status epilepticus
Diagnosis of Still’s disease
Causes of anaemia in CKD
Complications of falciparum malaria
Causes of peripheral neuropathy
Evaluation of sudden onset of chest pain
Nephrotoxic drugs
Cardiomyopathy
Management of neurotoxic snake bite
Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
Complications of cirrhosis of liver.
Goiter
X Linked recessive disorders
What is choline esterase aging
Treatment of typhoid fever
Name four causes of clubbing
Endocrine causes of weight loss.
Chemoprophylaxis of malaria
Diagnostic criteria of Guillain Barre Syndrome
Mention clinical features of infection associated glomerulonephritis.
Name two cardiac causes of cyanosis
Causes of pneumoconiosis
Precipitating factors of hepatic encephalopathy.
Two causes of Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
What are the symptoms and signs of diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
Management of community acquired pneumonia.
Pathogenesis of Myasthenia gravis
Adverse effects of Rituximab
Treatment of esophageal varices.
Name cyanotic congenital heart disease
Adverse drug reactions
Evaluation of pedal oedema
What is Henoch Schonlein Purpura (HSP).
Name two congenital heart diseases
Pulmonary function test abnormalities in interstitial lung disease.
Urinary findings in Nephrotic Syndrome
GOLD criteria of COPD.
Management of status asthmaticus.
Two causes of obstructive shock
Antimalarial drugs
Four causes for metabolic acidosis
What is Virchow’s triad.
Obesity and leptins
Symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Name two causes for splenomegaly
Angioedema
Treatment of hyperkalemia.
Name two disease modifying drugs used in psoriatic arthritis
Asymptomatic urinary abnormalities
What is Light’s criteria for evaluations of pleural fluid, enumerate two cause of exudative pleural effusion.
Uses of digoxin and features of digoxin toxicity.
Cerebrospinal fluid abnormalities in Guillain Barre Syndrome
Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon
Clinical features of Marfan’s syndrome
Side effects of anti-epileptics
Treatment of depression
What is myoclonus. List two causes.
Lupus anticoagulant
Indications for bone marrow study
Test to confirm cryptococcal meningitis and two drugs for treatment of the same.
Wernicke – Korsakoff syndrome.
Diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis
Two clinical signs of pellagra
Mention four Oncological Emergencies
Management of tension pneumothorax
Clinical triad of hemolytic anaemia
ECG findings in atrial fibrillation.
Management of psoriasis
Name some anti-depressive agents and common side effects.
Name two causes for hypercalcemia
Complications of Nephrotic syndrome.
Name four clinical signs in infective endocarditis
Name DPP4 inhibitors and mechanism of action.
Management of paracetamol poisoning
Clinical features of normal pressure hydrocephalus
Criteria for brain death
Management of DKA
Libman Sach’s endocarditis.
Drugs used in treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia
Three classes of drugs to treat bronchial asthma.
Management of hypercalcemia.
Treatment of Falciparum malaria.
Criteria for ARDS
Management of hypersensitive pneumonitis
Butterfly rash in face
Importance of prenatal screening and counselling in thalassemias
Foot care in diabetes.
Name two drugs used in chronic hepatitis B infection
Cerebrospinal fluid abnormalities in pyogenic meningitis.
Two complications of Rituximab
Management of diabetes ketoacidosis
Name two chelating agents. List two clinical uses in medicine.
Causes of ARDS
Post exposure prophylaxis in HIV infection
Zinc phosphide poisoning
Symptoms of hyperthyroidism
Symptoms of myasthenia gravis
Name four antiepileptic drugs and one side effect for each.
Isonicotinic acid hydrazide (INH).
Wave forms in JVP and significance of each wave.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Post Exposure prophylaxis in Hepatitis B infection.
Two causes of Type IV hyper sensitivity reaction
Clinical features of pemphigus vulgaris
Two causes of secondary hypothyroidism
Drugs used to treat gout.
Acute phase reactants
Mention four autosomal recessive disorders.
Clinical criteria of irritable bowel syndrome
Tick typhus
Complications of psoriasis.
Two signs of opioid poisoning
Clinical features of snake bite
Clinical features of herpes zoster.
Gall stones
Serological markers of chronic hepatitis B infection
Dukes criteria
Radiological findings in pulmonary tuberculosis
Management of OP compound poisoning
List the CNS manifestations of human immunodeficiency virus infection.
Clinical staging of lymphoma.
Radiological features of multiple myeloma.
Name two drugs used in treatment of malaria
Four clinical signs of cerebellar dysfunction
Management of status epilepticus.
Schizophrenia
Symptoms of ulcerative colitis
Management of Guillian Barre syndrome.
Three indications of low molecular weight heparin
Signs of congestive cardiac failure
Bipolar disorder.
Two clinical signs of enteric fever
Diabetes insipidus
List four symptoms of major depression.
Causes of pancreatitis.
HACEK organisms
Adrenal crises
Scabies
Lichen planus
What is complete heart block. What is the treatment of choice.
Complications of pneumonia
Features of pellagra.
Zollinger Ellison syndrome.
Grading of Body Mass Index
Treatment of neurocysticercosis
Define apex beat
Radiological diagnosis of pulmonary embolism
Hirsutism
Name some extra intestinal manifestations of inflammatory bowel disease.
Define isolated systolic hypertension
Giardiasis
Ring enhancing lesions in CT brain.
Complications of blood transfusion
Management of alcohol withdrawal syndrome.
Definition of intermediate syndrome in organophosphorus poisoning
Treatment of scabies
Type II respiratory failure
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
What are clinical features of amoebic liver abscess. What is the drug of choice.
Management of acute severe asthma
Four causes of chorea.
Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG).
Causes of pancytopenia.
Name two causes of subcutaneous nodules
Genetics of thalassemia
Name three causes of chronic diarrhoea
Management of hypertriglyceridemia.
Risk factors of deep vein thrombosis
IgA nephropathy
Iron chelation therapy.
Name two causes for cerebellar dysfunction
Neurotoxic snake bite management.
Two contra indications for stomach wash
Drugs causing gynecomastia
Four radiological features of mitral stenosis.
Drugs used in status epilepticus.
Acute pancreatitis
Diagnosis of spontaneous bactertial peritonitis
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Draw and label conduction pathway of heart
Grading of hypertensive retinopathy.
Enthesitis
Organisms causing acute diarrhoea.
Pituitary apoplexy.
Features of Acute nephritis.
Treatment of bronchiectasis.
Sick sinus syndrome
Treatment of hematemesis
List four causes of hypo pigmented patches on skin.
Causes of myopathy.
Brain death
Diagnosis of hypersplenism
Lepra reactions
Complication of diabetes mellitus
Acute left ventricular failure treatment
Draw and label cross section of Mid brain
List two clinical signs of hypocalcaemia and ECG findings.
Previous-year question papers. Question patterns derived from published papers for General Medicine.