Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery Final Year ENT Previous Year Question Papers

1.

Rhinosporidiosis.

6 Marks

2.

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

3 Marks

3.

Principle mechanism responsible for self-cleansing property of the external auditory canal is a) Ceruminous gland secretion b) Outward epithelial migration c) Vibration of tympanic membrane d) Movement of temporomandibular joint

1 Mark

4.

Mucocele most frequently affects the a) Maxillary sinus b) Ethmoidal sinus c) Frontal sinus d) Sphenoidal sinus

1 Mark

5.

A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent Profuse, non-foul smelling ear discharge from her left ear for the past eighteen months without any pain in the ear aggravated on exposure to cold. On otoscopic examination, a persistent perforation in the antero inferior part of the tympanic membrane is noted, and the middle ear appears clear without any masses. Which of the following diagnosis best describes this patient's condition? a) Otitis Externa b) Acute labyrinthitis c) Meniere’s Disease d) Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM) Tubotympanic Type

1 Mark

6.

Vasomotor rhinitis is due to a) Rebound phenomenon of decongestants b) Allergy c) Bacterial infection of nasal mucosa d) Autonomic imbalance of nasal mucosa

1 Mark

7.

Secondary haemorrhage following tonsillectomy is due to a) Sepsis of the tonsillar fossa b) Injury to the tonsillar pillars c) Slipping of ligatures d) Hypertension

1 Mark

8.

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of the dissection and snare method for tonsillectomy? a) Utilizes electrocautery for tonsillar tissue vaporization b) Employs high-frequency ultrasound to fragment the tonsil c) Involves blunt dissection to free the tonsil followed by the use of a snare for removal d) Requires a laser to ablate the tonsillar tissue

1 Mark

9.

A septate hyphae causing fungal sinusitis is a) Aspergillus b) Mucor c) Rhizopus d) Candida

1 Mark

10.

Which of the following is not a hyaline cartilage a) Epiglottis b) Thyroid c) Cricoid d) Arytenoid

1 Mark

11.

A 38-year-old woman presents to the ENT clinic with symptoms of nasal obstruction and a sensation of nasal fullness for several months. On endoscopic examination, multiple glistening, greyish, grape-like masses are noted hanging into the middle meatus. On performing probe Test, Probe is able to be passed on all the sides around the mass. What is the diagnosis and which of the following surgical interventions is most commonly utilized for definitive treatment? a) Antrochoanal Polyp - Caldwell-Luc operation b) Turbinate Hypertrophy - Septoplasty c) Ethmoidal Polyp - Functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS) d) Adenoid Hypertrophy - Rhinoplasty

1 Mark

12.

Patterson-Brown-Kelly (Plummer-Vinson) syndrome is linked especially with a) Posterior-pharyngeal wall carcinoma b) Post cricoid carcinoma c) Pyriform sinus carcinoma d) Lymphoma of hypopharynx

1 Mark

13.

Frey's syndrome is due to a) Gustatory lacrimation b) Gustatory sweating c) Hemifacial spasm d) Blepharospasm

1 Mark

14.

Which of the following is NOT a recognized physiological constriction of the oesophagus? a) Cricopharyngeal constriction b) Aortic constriction c) Constriction at the diaphragmatic hiatus d) Constriction at the angle of Louis

1 Mark

15.

Name the investigation using contrast colour lighting to differentiate malignant epithelial cells from normal cells a) Stroboscopy b) Narrow band imaging c) Direct laryngoscopy d) Videolaryngoscopy

1 Mark

16.

Sensory nerve supply of middle ear cavity is provided by a) Facial nerve b) Glossopharyngeal nerve c) Vagus nerve d) Trigeminal nerve

1 Mark

17.

A-B gap is sign of a) Perilymph fistula b) Meniere's disease c) Stapedial otosclerosis d) vestibular schwannoma

1 Mark

18.

Exenteration of all accessible mastoid air cells and preserving the posterior meatal wall is a) Radical mastoidectomy b) Schwartz procedure c) Tympanoplasty d) Modified radical mastoidectomy

1 Mark

19.

Which of the following is not true regarding Eustachian tube a) Provides communication between middle ear and nasopharynx b) 36mm in length c) Lateral 1/3rd is bony and medial 2/3rd is cartilaginous d) Remains open at rest

1 Mark

20.

Complications of acute mastoiditis a) Facial palsy b) Sub periosteal abscess c) Labyrinthitis d) All of the above

1 Mark

21.

Pneumatised enlarged middle turbinate is called as a) Concha bullosa b) Haller’s cell c) Onodi cell d) Ringertz tumour

1 Mark

22.

Hoarseness is the earliest symptom of carcinoma of a) Glottis b) Supra-glottis c) Subglottis d) Hypopharynx

1 Mark

23.

Facial asymmetry low set ears pre auricular tags present in a) Goldenhar syndrome b) Down syndrome c) Stickler syndrome d) Apert syndrome

1 Mark

24.

Schirmer’s test in lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy is to assess a) Salivation b) Lacrimation c) Taste sensation d) Stapedial reflex

1 Mark

25.

Concha bullosa is a) Enlarged inferior turbinate b) Enlarged supraorbital cell c) Pneumatized middle turbinate d) Enlarged Haller cell

1 Mark

26.

Dohlman's procedure is done for a) Eagle's syndrome b) Zenker's diverticulum c) Palate repair d) Tracheal repair

1 Mark

27.

Preferred treatment for unilateral hearing loss with external auditory canal atresia is a) Cochlear implant b) Bone anchored hearing aid (BAHA) c) Conventional hearing aid d) Hearing aid with CROS (cross routing of signals)

1 Mark

28.

Sialolithiasis is most commonly seen in a) Parotid gland b) Submandibular salivary gland c) Sublingual salivary gland d) Other minor salivary glands

1 Mark

29.

A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of sneezing, watery nasal discharge, and nasal itchiness that seem to worsen during the spring season. She notes that these episodes have been recurring annually for the past few years and are often accompanied by itchy, watery eyes. Based on her symptoms, which of the following laboratory investigations would most likely confirm the suspected diagnosis and identify the allergen responsible for her symptoms? a) Complete blood count (CBC) with a focus on Neutrophilia b) Sputum culture to identify bacterial pathogens c) Skin prick testing with common allergens d) Chest X-ray

1 Mark

30.

Which type of epithelium lines the middle ear cleft? a) Transitional b) Squamous c) Columnar d) Cuboidal

1 Mark

31.

Siegalization is useful in following conditions EXCEPT a) To check for tympanic membrane mobility b) To elicit fistula test c) To remove foreign bodies in external ear d) To instill topical ear medicines

1 Mark

32.

Most common site for origin of nasopharyngeal carcinoma a) Nasal septum b) Vault of nasopharynx c) Fossa of rosenmuller d) Antero-superior wall

1 Mark

33.

A young female had conductive hearing loss with intact tympanic membrane. Discuss the possible etiologies. Write in detail about clinical features, investigations, types and management of Otosclerosis.

15 Marks

34.

A male patient of 30 yrs presented with complaints of clear watery discharge from the right nasal cavity after head injury which increased on bending forward: a) What is the diagnosis. b) Enumerate the signs and symptoms of this condition c) Explain the investigations. d) How do you treat this condition

15 Marks

35.

Discuss the etiology clinical features and management of primary Atrophic Rhinitis. Write briefly on Nasal Myiasis.

15 Marks

36.

What are the major and minor symptoms to diagnose sinusitis. Describe the clinical features, investigations, endoscopic and external approaches in management of chronic maxillary sinusitis.

15 Marks

37.

Discuss in detail, etiology, clinical features and management of Meniere's disease.

15 Marks

38.

List the causes of stridor. Discuss the types, procedure and post operative care of Tracheostomy.

15 Marks

39.

Complications of Tonsillectomy.

6 Marks

40.

Audiological findings and treatment of Otosclerosis,

6 Marks

41.

Stapedial Otosclerosis.

6 Marks

42.

Non-malignant lesions of Larynx.

6 Marks

43.

Oral submucosal fibrosis.

6 Marks

44.

Oral Submucous Fibrosis.

6 Marks

45.

Consent for Tracheostomy.

6 Marks

46.

Choanal Atresia.

6 Marks

47.

Tuning fork tests.

6 Marks

48.

Intra cranial complications of Chronic otitis media.

6 Marks

49.

Explain clinical features and management of vocal cord nodules

6 Marks

50.

Management of Meniere disease.

6 Marks

51.

Physiology of hearing.

6 Marks

52.

Etiopathogenesis of Cholesteatoma.

6 Marks

53.

Causes of unilateral nasal obstruction.

6 Marks

54.

What is Waldeyer's ring and its components. Discuss treatment of Peritonsillar Abscess.

6 Marks

55.

Physiology of deglutition.

6 Marks

56.

CSF Rhinorrhoea.

6 Marks

57.

Clinical features of Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma.

6 Marks

58.

Trotter’s triad.

3 Marks

59.

Rhinolalia Aperta,

3 Marks

60.

Referred Otalgia.

3 Marks

61.

Heimlich manoeuvre.

3 Marks

62.

Draw a labelled diagram of Tympanic Membrane.

3 Marks

63.

Inverted papilloma.

3 Marks

64.

Nasal myiasis

3 Marks

65.

Caloric tests.

3 Marks

66.

Topo diagnostic tests for facial nerve.

3 Marks

67.

Laryngomalacia.

3 Marks

68.

Rhinophyma.

3 Marks

69.

Mc Evan's triangle.

3 Marks

70.

Difference between Ethmoidal and Antrochoanal Polyps.

3 Marks

71.

Ohngren’s classification.

3 Marks

72.

Little's area.

3 Marks

73.

Plummer Vinson Syndrome.

3 Marks

Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of SurgeryENT Previous Year Question Papers