KUHS MBBS Community Medicine Previous Question Paper - May 2025 (316001 2019 Scheme)

316001Kerala University of Health Sciences · Community Medicine · 2025 · May · 2019 Scheme

Questions (18)

1.Single response questions
An example of a live attenuated vaccine is a) Hepatitis B b) Pertussis c) Measles d) Diphtheria
The duration of electricity supply required in a day to keep the vaccines effective in an ice-lines refrigerator (ILR) is a) 4 hours b) 10 hours c) 8 hours d) 2 hours
Fish fat is a dietary source of a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin B₁
Water pump in broad street in London was identified as the source of cholera by a) William Farr b) John Snow c) John Grunt d) Hippocrates
Interruption of transmission of disease a) Elimination b) Control c) Eradication d) Extermination
5 Marks
2.100 children with bronchopneumonia were taken and, 100 children with the same age and sex who did not have bronchopneumonia were taken and history of vitamin A rich food intake was assessed.
An odds ratio of one indicates a) Protective effect c) No association b) High risk d) No inference can be made
The study design is a) Randomised control trial b) Cohort c) Case control d) Case-cohort
The bias in case control is a) Confounder bias b) Berke Sonian bias c) Selection bias d) All of the above
Matching help to prevent a) Confounder bias b) Selection bias c) Berke Sonian bias d) Recall bias
The measure of risk in case control study is a) Odds ratio b) Relative risk c) Attributable risk d) Hazard ratio
5 Marks
3.Two statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below.
Assertion: Waste sharps are disposed in puncture proof, leak proof and tamper proof containers Reason: Waste sharps are a health hazard to health care workers a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, R is true
Assertion: Predictive value of a screening test depends on the prevalence of the disease Reason: Sensitivity and specificity are the measures of validity of a screening test a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, R is true
Assertion: The active search for disease in apparently healthy people is screening Reason: The benefit of screening is that early diagnosis is possible a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, R is true
Assertion: Case fatality rate is a measure of virulence of the disease Reason: Rabies has low case fatality rate a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, R is true
Assertion: In a simple random sampling technique, every member of the population has an unequal chance of being selected in the sample Reason: A list of members in the sampling frame is necessary for selection of the sample a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, R is true
5 Marks
4.Multiple response type questions read the statements and mark the answers appropriately
The types of formulations of essential medicine are 1) Immediate release tablets 2) Enteric coated tablets 3) Hard and soft gelatin capsules 4) Oral liquids/injectable/Topical forms a) 1, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3 are correct c) 1, 2 are correct d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
Residual chlorine after disinfection of water is tested by 1) Orthotolidine Arsenic test 2) Orthotolidine test 3) Methylene blue test 4) Chlorotex test a) 1, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3 are correct c) 1 and 2 are correct d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
The advantages of an occupational cohort subgroups in a cohort study all EXCEPT 1) Easy access to study participants 2) Easy follow-up of participants 3) Participants are cooperative 4) Selecting a comparison group is difficult a) 1, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3 are correct c) 1, 2, are correct d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
Prevalance as a measure of disease frequency is influenced by 1) Duration of the disease 2) Incidence of the disease 3) Fatality of the disease 4) Variation in the population size a) 1, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 4 are correct c) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2 are correct
The relation in size between two random quantities is expressed as 1) Doctor population ratio 2) Sex ratio at birth 3) Child sex ratio 4) Doctor nurse ratio a) 1, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3 are correct c) 1, 2 are correct d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
5 Marks
5.Three children in a village reported to the medical officer with history of vomiting and fever since two days.They were 2 years, 5 years and 7 years old. a) What are the differential diagnosis of the cases. b) How will you manage the cases. c) List the steps of investigating this epidemic
10 Marks
6.Define health education. Discuss the principles of health education. List the barriers to communication.
10 Marks
7. Define biomedical waste. List the sources of biomedical waste. Discuss the role of personal protective devices while handling biomedical waste
6 Marks
8.Classify epidemiological study designs. Describe the advantages of randomization in an experimental study
6 Marks
9.Discuss the Vitamin A prophylaxis program. List the sources of vitamin A in an Indian diet.
6 Marks
10. Genetic counselling.
6 Marks
11.List the stages in demographic cycle. Discuss birth and death registration in India
6 Marks
12.Epidemic dropsy.
6 Marks
13.What is fiduciary duty and how is it applicable to doctors. What are the penalties a doctor can be given in case of breach of fiduciary duty. State with an example.
4 Marks
14.Principles of Primary Health Care.
4 Marks
15.Sickness benefit in the Employees State Insurance Act.
4 Marks
16.Trans fatty acids
4 Marks
17. Measure of central tendency
4 Marks
18.Hazards prevention and control of air pollution.
4 Marks

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