KUHS MBBS Pharmacology Previous Question Paper - December 2024 (211001 2019 Scheme)

211001Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pharmacology · 2024 · December · 2019 Scheme

Questions (18)

4.Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below
Select the CORRECT statement regarding protein binding of drugs: 1. Protein bound drug is not available for action. 2. Highly plasma protein bound drugs tend to have high volume of distribution. 3. Highly protein bound drugs are generally long acting. 4. Basic drugs are generally bound to albumin. a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3 c) 3 & 4 d) 1 & 3
The following statements concerning the use of lithium in the management of bipolar affective disorder is TRUE: 1. Excessive intake of sodium chloride enhances the toxicity of lithium 2. Lithium alleviates the manic phase of bipolar disorder in 24 hours 3. Lithium dosage may need to be reduced in patients taking diuretics 4. Lithium has narrow margin of safety and requires therapeutic drug monitoring a) 1 & 3 b) 2 & 3 c) 3 & 4 d) 2 & 4
The following statements about spironolactone are true: 1. It is a potassium sparing diuretic 2. It can cause gynecomastia and impotence 3. It acts on the thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle 4. It is combined with lisinopril to counteract hypokalemia a) 1 & 2 b) 1 & 4 c) 2 & 4 d) 1 & 3
Toxicities of atropine include the following: 1. Bradycardia 2. Dry mouth 3. Miosis 4. Psychotic behavior a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 3 d) 2 & 4
The following are the examples of idiosyncrasy: 1. Chloramphenicol producing aplastic anemia 2. Aspirin producing gastric irritation 3. INH producing hepatotoxicity 4. Atypical pseudocholinesterase resulting in succinylcholine apnea a) 1 & 3 b) 2 & 4 c) 1 & 4 d) 2 & 3
5 Marks
5.A 62-year-old male presents with exertional dyspnea and pedal edema. There is no significant medical or family history. Physical examination showed the presence of elevated jugular venous pulse and mild hepatomegaly. Echocardiography showed an ejection fraction of 35% (normal >50%), suggestive of heart failure. a) Name two drug groups, with two examples for each, which are likely to slow down the disease progression in this patient. b) Explain their mechanism of action in heart failure. c) Which drug would be suitable to relieve the congestive symptoms in this patient.Explain. d) Explain the role of phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitors in heart failure
10 Marks
6.A 60-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents to the emergency department with crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm, suggestive of acute myocardial infarction (AMI). He is anxious, and his pain is rated as 9/10. The patient is stabilized with oxygen and other supportive measures but his chest pain persists. a) Mention the analgesic of choice in this patient with route of administration and pharmacological basis for the same. b) Mention two adverse effects of the same along with the involved receptor. c) Enumerate two other uses of the preferred analgesic. d) Mention two antagonists that can be used in case the patient encounters overdosage with route of administration
10 Marks
7.Define bioavailability. What are the factors that affect bioavailability of drugs
6 Marks
8.Enumerate three drug groups with two examples each for treating chronic simple glaucoma.Write the mechanism of action of all three groups
6 Marks
9.Name three drug groups with two examples each used in treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis.Briefly describe DMARD
6 Marks
10.Mention two low molecular weight heparins. Explain their mechanism of action. What are the differences between unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparins.
6 Marks
11.Compare and contrast: chlorpromazine and risperidone.
6 Marks
12.Mention four groups of antiasthmatic drugs giving two examples each. How will you treat a case of acute severe exacerbation of bronchial asthma.
6 Marks
13.Enumerate four factors that modify drug action giving suitable examples for each.
4 Marks
14.Mention four atropine substitutes with respective clinical indications for the same.
4 Marks
15.Explain the pharmacological basis for using diuretics in hypertension with an example. Mention two antihypertensives used in pregnancy.
4 Marks
1.Single Response Type
Norepinephrine lacks the following action: a) Bronchodilatation b) Intestinal relaxation c) Reduced blood flow to kidney d) Rise in blood pressure
The ability of a drug to cause fetal abnormalities when administered to a pregnant lady is referred to as: a) Iatrogenicity b) Idiosyncrasy c) Pharmacogenetics d) Teratogenicity
Heparin overdosage is treated with: a) Phytonadione b) Epsilon aminocaproic acid c) Protamine sulfate d) Tranexamic acid
The factor which does not govern the volume of distribution of a drug is a) Lipid: water partition coefficient ratio b) First pass metabolism c) Congestive cardiac failure d) Plasma protein binding
The following opioid is contraindicated in myocardial infarction as an analgesic due to its sympathomimetic properties: a) Morphine b) Pethidine c) Fentanyl d) Pentazocine
5 Marks
2.Multiple Response Type
The following are the examples of idiosyncrasy: 1. Chloramphenicol producing aplastic anemia 2. Aspirin producing gastric irritation 3. INH producing hepatotoxicity 4. Atypical pseudocholinesterase resulting in succinylcholine apnea a) 1 & 3 b) 2 & 4 c) 1 & 4 d) 2 & 3
Toxicities of atropine include the following: 1. Bradycardia 2. Dry mouth 3. Miosis 4. Psychotic behavior a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 3 d) 2 & 4
The following statements about spironolactone are true: 1. It is a potassium sparing diuretic 2. It can cause gynecomastia and impotence 3. It acts on the thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle 4. It is combined with lisinopril to counteract hypokalemia a) 1 & 2 b) 1 & 4 c) 2 & 4 d) 1 & 3
The following statements concerning the use of lithium in the management of bipolar affective disorder is TRUE: 1. Excessive intake of sodium chloride enhances the toxicity of lithium 2. Lithium alleviates the manic phase of bipolar disorder in 24 hours 3. Lithium dosage may need to be reduced in patients taking diuretics 4. Lithium has narrow margin of safety and requires therapeutic drug monitoring a) 1 & 3 b) 2 & 3 c) 3 & 4 d) 2 & 4
Select the CORRECT statement regarding protein binding of drugs: 1. Protein bound drug is not available for action. 2. Highly plasma protein bound drugs tend to have high volume of distribution. 3. Highly protein bound drugs are generally long acting. 4. Basic drugs are generally bound to albumin. a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3 c) 3 & 4 d) 1 & 3
5 Marks
3.A 35-year-old woman with a history of heavy menstrual periods presents with fatigue and dizziness. Blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia.
The following statements about iron kinetics is FALSE: a) Ferric form of iron is better absorbed than ferrous form b) Ascorbic acid increases iron absorption c) Excess iron is stored as ferritin d) Iron is transported with the help of transferrin
All of the following are adverse effects of oral iron therapy EXCEPT: a) Nausea and vomiting b) Constipation c) Diarrhoea d) Acute kidney injury
Due to her intolerance, the physician decides to initiate parenteral iron therapy to restore her iron levels effectively. The following iron preparation may be used in her by intravenous route: a) Ferrous gluconate b) Ferrous fumarate c) Ferric ammonium citrate d) Ferric carboxymaltose
The guide for calculating the dose of parenteral iron is: a) Physician’s assessment based on amount of the blood lost b) Using the formula based on body weight and haemoglobin deficit c) Based on the time available for the restoration of haemoglobin levels d) Start with a low dose and titrate upwards over two weeks
Suppose this lady develops acute iron poisoning, the therapy which can be given is: a) Fresh frozen plasma b) Erythropoietin c) Desferrioxamine d) Folinic acid
5 Marks
16.Mention four prostaglandin analogs and their respective clinical indications
4 Marks
17.Enumerate four objectives of preanesthetic medications along with the drugs used for achieving the same
4 Marks
18.Describe the role of autonomy, beneficence and justice as guiding principles in patient care.
4 Marks

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