General Surgery Previous Year Question Papers
1097
51 papers · MBBS · previous-year papers
- KNRUHS MBBS General Surgery April 2026 (MB2019133 Regular)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KNRUHS MBBS General Surgery April 2026 (MB2019134 Regular)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery April 2026 (1097 RS3)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KNRUHS MBBS General Surgery June 2025 (MB2019133 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KNRUHS MBBS General Surgery June 2025 (MB2019134 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery April 2025 (1097 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery August 2025 (1039 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery August 2025 (1040 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - april 2025 (307001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - april 2025 (308001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - May 2025 (324001 2019 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KNRUHS MBBS General Surgery May 2024 (MB2019133 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KNRUHS MBBS General Surgery May 2024 (MB2019134 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- NTRUHS MBBS General Surgery December 2024 (15A03101 SET-B CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery August 2024 (1097 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery June 2024 (1097 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery June 2024 (1039 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery March 2024 (1039 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery June 2024 (1040 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery August 2024 (1095 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery March 2024 (1040 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - august 2024 (307001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - august 2024 (308001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - july 2024 (323001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - july 2024 (324001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - march 2024 (307001 Revised)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - march 2024 (308001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - march 2024 (323001 Revised)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - march 2024 (324001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery February 2023 (1097 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery July 2023 (1097 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - march 2023 (308001 Revised)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - march 2023 (307001 Revised)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- NTRUHS MBBS General Surgery December 2022 (Regular)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- NTRUHS MBBS General Surgery January 2022 (Regular)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- NTRUHS MBBS General Surgery January 2022 (Regular)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery March 2022 (1097 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery August 2022 (1097 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - september 2022 (308001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - march 2022 (307001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - march 2022 (308001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - september 2022 (307001 Revised)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- NTRUHS MBBS General Surgery March 2021 (Regular)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery March 2021 (1097 RS3)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery September 2021 (1097 RS3)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - May 2021 (308001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- NTRUHS MBBS General Surgery September 2020 (Regular)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery October 2020 (1095 RS3)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- RGUHS MBBS General Surgery October 2020 (1097 RS3)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - february 2020 (307001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
- KUHS MBBS General Surgery Previous Question Paper - february 2020 (308001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · General Surgery
Showing 20 of 851 questions
Massive blood transfusion results in a. DIC b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypothermia d. Thrombocytopenia
The most common site of arterial embolism a. Common carotid artery b. Brachial artery c. Femoral artery d. Popliteal artery
The most common cause of fat embolism is a. Weight gain b. Weight loss c. Bone fracture d. Infection
Which of the following drugs have been shown to improve claudication pain a. Beta blockers b. Oxpentifylline c. Aspirin d. Prostacyclin
Secondary hemorrhage is usually due to a. Trauma b. Slipped ligature c. Infection d. All of the above
Treatment of congenital hydrocele a. Herniotomy b. Hernioplasty c. Lords operation plication d. Jaboulays procedure - eversion of sac
Wound healing is not impaired by a. Anemia b. Hypoproteinemia c. Ascorbic acid deficiency d. Cortisone administration
The route of choice for administering adrenaline in anaphylactic shock a. Intramuscular b. Intravenous c. Subcutaneous d. Inhalational
Methemoglobinemia can occur due to overdose of which local anesthetic a. Lignocaine b. Prilocaine c. Bupivacaine d. Both A and B
Within 48 hours of transplantation, skin graft survives due to a. Amount of saline in graft b. Plasma inhibition c. New vessels growing from donor tissue d. All of the above
Parenteral nutrition is best given through a. Femoral vein b. Saphenous vein c. Subclavian vein d. None of the above
Commonest organ injured in blast injury is a. Lung b. Liver c. Spleen d. Pancreas
Most common tumor in posterior mediastinum is a. Lymphoma b. Bronchogenic cyst c. Neurofibroma d. Teratoma
Langenbeek's repair is a method of a. Grafting in burns b. Repair after surgical excision c. Repair of cleft lip (d) d. Repair of cleft palate
The following are clinical features of gas gangrene except a. Crepitus b. Khakhi coloured skin c. Low grade fever d. Hypertension
The treatment of choice in flail chest a. Tracheostomy b. Adhesive strapping c. Elevation of broken ribs with towel clips d. Positive pressure ventilation
Torsion testis
Ulcerative colitis
Pseudocyst of pancreas
Hydatid cyst of liver
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Complications of gall stones
Classify thyroid Neoplasms. . Describe clinical features, investigations and treatment of papillary carcinoma thyroid
Describe surgical anatomy of the liver. Discuss classification, pathophysiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of liver trauma
Phylloides tumour
Congenital pyloric stenosis
Subdural Hematoma management
Thimble bladder
Clinical features of renal tuberculosis
Empyema necessitans
Sigmoid Volvulus.
Appendicular Mass.
Monteggia Fracture.
Spinal anaesthesia.
Hydronephrosis
Carcinoid tumour.
Paraphimosis.
Charcot’s triad.
Vesical Calculus.
Management of Chronic osteomyelitis.
Sequestrum.
Inguinal Hernia containing Meckel’s diverticulum as a part of its contents of the sac is known as A) Gilmore’s hernia B) Maydl’s hernia C) Spigelian hernia D) Littre’s hernia
Hurthle cell tumours of Thyroid are a variant of a) Papillary Carcinoma b) Follicular Carcinoma c) Medullary Carcinoma d) Anaplastic Carcinoma
Vaccination is considered in Splenectomy against all Except a) Pneumococcus b) Meningococcus c) Staphylococcus d) Hemophilus Influenza
POEM is the treatment option for A) Ca oesophagus B) Achalasia cardia C) Mallory Weiss syndrome D) Oesophageal varices
All of the following are true Except a) Superior Parathyroids arise from 4th Pharyngeal Arch b) Inferior Parathyroids arise from 5th Pharyngeal Arch c) Blood supply of Parathyroids are from Inferior Thyroid Artery d) Inferior Parathyroids arise from 3rd Pharyngeal Arch
All of the following are true Except a) Measurement of serum amylase is most widely used test for Acute Pancreatitis b) Serum amylase is more sensitive and specific than Serum lipase c) Serum amylase rises in few hours of Pancreatic damage and declines in next 4- 8 days d) All are True
Bud Chiari syndrome is due to thrombosis of A) Portal vein B) Abdominal Aorta C) Superior mesenteric vein D) Hepatic veins
All of the following syndromes are associated with Pheochromocytoma Except a) Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia II b) Von Hippel- Lindau Syndrome c) Vonreckling Hausen’s Disease d) Kasabach- Merritt Syndrome
Physiological phimosis persists until a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 5 years d) 6 years
Most common type of renal stones A) Calcium oxalate stones B) Calcium phosphate stones C) Uric acid stones D) Struvite stones
Boundaries of Calot’s triangle include all Except a) Cystic Duct b) Common Hepatic Duct c) Inferior surface of Liver d) Cystic Artery
All are true regarding Urolithiasis Except a) Calcium Oxalate stones are the most common type b) Uric acid precipitates into crystals in Acidic Urine c) Struvite and Apatite stones formed as a result of Urease producing Bacterial infections d) All are true
Ca 19-9 is a tumour marker for A) Ca pancreas B) Ca stomach C) Ca breast D) Ca thyroid
Inferior Pancreatico Duodenal Artery is branch of a) Celiac Artery b) Inferior Mesenteric Artery c) Superior Mesenteric Artery d) Aorta
A 40-year-old lady during routine ultrasound scanning of abdomen was found to have silent gall stones three months ago and was on follow up. She suddenly develops pain in the right upper abdomen with vomiting. Discuss the following: a. Probable diagnosis. b. Clinical signs. c. Relevant investigations. d. Treatment options. e. Post operative complications.
A 25 year old lady presented with acute pain abdomen, vomiting and fever. On examination Mcburney's point is tender. Discuss: a) Probable diagnosis. b) Role of imaging. c) Pre-operative preparation. d) Post-operative complications.
Define and classify the Goitres. Describe the Aetiology, Clinical features and Management of Grave’s Disease.
Enumerate the indications of Splenectomy and write a note on opportunistic post-splenectomy infections.
Splenectomy Indications and its complications
Discuss in detail the classification of Breast cancer.
Define and enumerate the causes of Lower GI Bleeding.
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN).
Kehr’s sign.
Secondary Hydrocele.
Post Vagotomy Complications.
Subphrenic abscess.
Allen’s test is useful in evaluating A) Thoracic outlet compression B) Integrity of palmar arch C) Presence of cervical rib D) Digital blood flow
The complication not common in colle's fracture is a) malunion b) non union c) Sudeck's atrophy d) Stiffness of wrist
In transverse fracture of the patella, the treatment is a) Excision of small fragment b) Wire fixation c) Plaster cylinder d) Patellectomy
Tennis elbow is characterized by A) Tenderness over medial epicondyle B) Tendinitis of common extensor origin C) Tendinitis of common flexor origin D) Painful flexion and extension of Shoulder
The most common cause of a sprained ankle is injury of a) Deltoid ligament b) lateral ligament c) Inferior tibiofibular ligament d) Anterior Talofibular ligament.
March fracture affects a) Neck of 2nd metatarsal b) Body of 2nd Metatarsal c) Neck of 1st metatarsal d) Fracture of lower end of tibia
Commonest complication of extracapsular fracture of neck of femur is A) Non-Union B) Ischemic necrosis C) Malunion D) Pulmonary complications
Commonest type of dislocation of the hip is a) Anterior b) Posterior c) Central d) Dislocation with fracture of the shaft
Enameloplasty is done when there is………of the thickness of enamel. a) 1/3rd b) 1/4th c) 1/10th d) 1/2
Myositis ossificans is commonly seen at the ….. joint A) Knee B) Elbow C) Shoulder D) Hip
Which of the following nerves should be blocked for an operation at the medial aspect of the lower leg? a) Femoral b) Sciatic c) Common peroneal d) Tibial
You are an intern posted in the ICU. While taking a blood sample for ABG, which of the following steps would you not do? a) Normal ph can't rule out acid base disorder b) Add 0.5 ml Heparin to the syringe before taking blood c) If modified Allens test is negative, alternate site is chosen d) Radial artery is the preferred site.
Bone metastasis in males commonly arise from the following malignancy A) Prostate B) Kidney C) Colon D) Lung
Sclerotic dentin under reflected light appears as: a) Light b) Dark c) Opaque d) Transparent
A middle-aged man is posted for an open cholecystectomy. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia. The pre-anesthetic evaluation revealed abnormal liver function tests and mild hepatomegaly. Which of the following muscle relaxants can be safely used in this patient? a) Vecuronium b) Atracurium c) Pancuronium d) Rocuronium
Describe the mechanism of injury, clinical features and management of Colle’s fracture.
Discuss about incidence, mechanism of injury, risk factors, clinical features, diagnosis and management and general, local complications of Intracapsular fracture of neck of femur in Adults.
Describe the mechanism of Injury, clinical features and management of fracture neck of Femur.
Clinical features of shoulder dislocation.
Osteo arthritis of Knee.
CTEV (Congenital Talipes Equinovarus).
Splints in orthopaedics.
Ewing’s Sarcoma.
Congenital Talipes Equino Varus (CTEV).
Epulis
Ultrasound Therapy.
Radiological features of Ewings Sarcoma
Sudeck’s osteodystrophy.
Dietary habits which leads to dental caries.
Branchial Plexus Block.
Radiological features of Osteosarcoma.
Radiological features of Chronic Osteomyelitis
Management of Mandible Fracture.
Surgical site infection
Tennis elbow
Local Anesthetic agents
Giant cell tumour
Trigger finger
Define and classify hemorrhage, write in detail about blood transfusion
PET-CT
Day care surgery
Immunohistochemistry
Complications of parenteral nutrition
Cold Abscess Neck
Describe the aetiology, pathology, investigations, differential diagnosis and treatment of Acute Osteomyelitis
Supracondylar fracture
Non union of fractures
Brodie’s abscess
Congenial deformities of foot
Metabolic Acidosis
Tubercular Lymphadenitis
Madura Foot
Define burns. Enumerate the different causes of burns. Discuss the management of a 35 years old female with 40% partial to full thickness burns
Abnormal Aortic Aneurysm
Implantation Dermoid
Capillary Hemangioma
Thrombo Angitis Obliterans (T.A.O)
Define and classify shock? Describe pathophysiology, clinical features and management of septicaemic shock.
Define and classify intestinal obstruction. Describe clinical features, pathophysiology, investigations and treatment of acute intestinal obstruction.
Plemorphic adenoma of parotid gland
Describe surgical anatomy of the stomach. Discuss etiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of early gastric cancer.
Hypokalaemia
Thyroid storm
Acute epididymo-orchitis
Carcinoma breast
Types and complications of Radiotherapy
Definition and types of skin grafts
Mammogram
Compartment syndrome
Write clinical presentation, diagnosis and management of intracapsular fracture neck of Femur in a 73 years old female patient.
High radial nerve palsy
Rickets
Congenital dislocation of Hip
Hyperparathyroidism
Osteosarcoma
Conn's syndrome consists of A. Raised aldosterone level B. Decreased aldosterone level C. Decreased thyroxine level D. Raised PTH level
Surgery for Inguinal hernia includes all EXCEPT A. Litchenstein repair B. Stoppa’s repair C. Desarda repair D. McEvedy repair
The most common type of kidney stone is A. Uric acid stone B. Calcium Oxalate stone C. Cystine stone D. Triple phosphate
A 65-year-old male patient presented in the casualty with two hours history of sudden onset of severe headache associated with nausea and vomiting. On clinical examination, the patient had neck stiffness and right-sided ptosis. The rest of the neurological examination was normal. What is the clinical diagnosis? A. Hypertensive brain haemorrhage B. Migraine C. Aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage D. Arteriovenous malformation
Features of peritonitis include all EXCEPT A. Abdominal pain that increases on movement B. Fever C. Guarding D. Increased bowel sounds
Obstructive hydrocephalus is caused by A. Post hemorrhagic state B. CSF infection C. Choroid plexus carcinoma D. Lesion in the ventricle
Following are features of venous ulcer EXCEPT A. Sloping edge B. Occurs at pressure site C. Venous hypertension D. Surrounding skin pigmentation
Left sided varicocele should raise the suspicion of A. Left adrenal gland tumor B. Left pelvi-ureteric junction obstruction C. Left renal cell carcinoma D. Left pyelonephritis
Conditions associated with severe obesity are the following EXCEPT A. Type 2 diabetes B. Polycystic ovary syndrome C. Hypertension D. Hypothyroidism
Metabolic abnormalities seen in gastric outlet obstruction are A. Hyponatremic hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria B. Hyponatremic hyperkalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria C. Hypernatremic hypokalemic hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis with no aciduria D. Hyponatremic hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
A 35-year male presented with complaints of lower abdominal pain referred to the tip of the penis, with haematuria at the end of micturition. On examination, hypogastric tenderness is present, with no guarding or rigidity. Ultrasound showed vesicular calculi. Urine culture and sensitivity showed high growth of proteus mirabilis. Which of the following type of stone could it be? A. Uric acid stone B. Oxalate stone C. Cystine stone D. Triple phosphate
Which of the following is TRUE for seminoma testis A. Predominantly spreads through lymphatics B. Consists of a mixture of tissues C. Secretes beta HCG D. Spreads predominantly by blood
PAIR technique is used in the treatment of A. Paronychia B. Hydatid cyst of the liver C. Pseudo-cyst of the pancreas D. Appendicular abscess
Goodsall’s Rule is applicable for A. Fissure in ano B. Fistula in ano C. Haemarrhoids D. Pilonidal sinus
Structure NOT preserved in modified radical neck dissection is A. Spinal accessory nerve B. Submandibular nerve C. Sternocleidomastoid muscle D. Internal jugular vein
Pain caused by irritation of nerves A. Psychogenic pain B. Nociceptive pain C. Neuropathic pain D. Inflammatory pain
36-year-old female who had laparoscopic cholecystectomy two days ago is brought to A&E with increasing abdominal pain and distension. On examination, she is very unwell and shows signs of peritonitis. Which of these is your primary diagnosis? A. Bowel injury B. Major vessel injury C. Port-site bleeding D. Port-site hernia
Which of the following is not a complication of massive transfusion? A. Hypercalcemia B. Coagulopathy C. Hypothermia D. Hyperkalemia
The following may be associated with Human Immunodeficiency Virus(HIV) EXCEPT A. Pneumocystitis Carinii Pneumionia B. Kaposi’s Sarcoma C. Drug treatment is most effective in late phase D. Drug treatment is most effective in early phase
What solution is used to increase the shelf life of Packed Red Blood Cells? A. Normal saline B. University of Wisconsin solution C. Formalin D. Saline-adenine-glucose-mannitol solution (SAG-M solution)
Which of the following is NOT part of the anaesthetic triad used during surgery? A. Unconsciousness B. Pain relief C. Amnesia D. Muscle relaxation
Branchial cyst , following is TRUE A. Sequestration dermoid B. Presents at the upper end of neck C. Seen at lower end of the neck D. Develops from third branchial cleft
What is the most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome? A. Widespread use of corticosteroids for other conditions B. Ectopic ACTH production C. Primary bilateral adrenal hyperplasia D. Adrenocortical Carcinoma
A patient who was admitted after a road traffic accident is put on mechanical ventilation. He opens his eyes on verbal command and moves all four limbs spontaneously. Calculate his GCS A. Eyes - 2, Verbal - 1, Motor -5 B. Eyes - 2, Verbal - NT, Motor -5 C. Eyes - 3, Verbal - 1, Motor -6 D. Eyes - 3, Verbal - NT, Motor -6
Gas Gangrene, following is true EXCEPT A. Caused by Clostridium tetani B. Occurs in immunocompromised patients C. Antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary D. Gas in soft tissue
Metabolic response to trauma and sepsis include all except A. Decrease in counter-regulatory hormones like adrenaline and cortisol B. Increased energy requirements C. Increased nitrogen requirements D. Insulin resistance and glucose intolerance
Standard upper GI endoscopy includes examination of all EXCEPT A. Pharynx B. Esophagus C. Duodenum D. Jejunum
Mondor’s disease is A. Infection of scalp B. Spontaneous thrombophlebitis of veins of leg C. Spontaneous thrombophlebitis of veins of breast D. Infection of the cheek
Horner's syndrome, all are true EXCEPT A. Miosis B. Anhydrosis C. Ptosis D. Exophthalmos
In remodeling phase of wound healing it is characterized by maturation of collagen in type 1 collagen is replaced by A. Type III B. Type II C. Fibro-blasts D. Type IV
Metabolic response to trauma includes all EXCEPT A. Increased energy requirement B. Decreased energy requirement C. Increased nitrogen requirement D. Increased gluconeogenesis
Young woman who underwent a total thyroidectomy in the morning rapidly becomes agitated and complains increasing difficulty in breathing by 5.00 pm on the same day. Her pulse rate rises are central cyanosis is noticed on examination; her neck found to be tensely swollen beneath the stitches. The most appropriate management in this case would be: A. Intranasal oxygen B. Passing an endotracheal tube in the ward C. Removing sutures from all layers in the ward an evacuation of hematoma D. Immediate transfer of the patient to the operation theatre for tracheostomy
Fasciotomy is indicated in Compartment Syndrome ,if compartment pressure is higher than A. 20 mmhg B. 22 mmhg C. 25 mmhg D. 30 mmhg
Complication of blood transfusion includes all EXCEPT A. Febrile reaction B. Allergic reaction C. AIDS D. Leukemia
The inferior parathyroid glands and the thymus develop from the A. First pharyngeal pouch B. Second pharyngeal pouch C. Second branchial arch D. Third pharyngeal pouch
Which virus is associated with naso pharyngeal carcinoma? A. Epstein barr virus B. Varicella Zoster C. HPV 6 and 11 D. Rhinovirus
Cleft palate occurs due to A. Abnormal development of median nasal process B. Abnormal development of maxillary process C. Failure of fusion of palatine shelves D. Failure of fusion of nasal bones
Glomus tumours are seen in the A. Nail bed B. Cerebellum C. Retina D. Gall bladder fossa
Which solution is preferred in the initial management of hypovolemic shock? A. Normal Saline B. Ringer Lactate C. Albumin D. Blood
Preoperative plan for better surgical outcome includes all EXCEPT A. Optimize patient condition B. Informed consent C. Document relevant information D. No need to correct anaemia
Fogarty’s catheter is used for A. Urethral catheterization B. Removal of blood clots from the arteries C. Bladder drainage D. TPN
Malignancy arising from a chronic scar is called ……………. A. Meleney’s ulcer B. Melanoma C. Marjolin’s ulcer D. Rodent ulcer
Postoperative complications include all EXCEPT A. Hypotension B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Pneumonia D. Renal failure
The exception about enteral nutrition is A. It preserves gut mucosal barrier and immunity B. Prevents gut atrophy C. Has increased infection rates D. It is cheaper than parenteral nutrition
Meckel’s Diverticulum
Choledochal cyst
Achalasia cardia
Fistula – in – ano
Thyroglossal cyst.
Femoral hernia
Mesenteric cyst.
Epidural Anaesthesia
Acute Appendicitis
Principles of laparoscopy
Tension pneumothorax
Abdominal tuberculosis
Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Pseudo-pancreatic cyst
Deep vein thrombosis
Carcinoma penis
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis.
Varicocele.
Congenital hydrocele.
Enumerate the clinical features and management of pancreatic pseudocyst
1. Embryology, Clinical features and management of Horse-shoe kidney
Enumerate Indications and Complications of Blood transfusion.
Benign breast disease
Sub dural hemorrhage.
Extra dural hemorrhage.
Enumerate clinical features and add a note on management of Achalasia cardia
Hydatid cyst liver.
Enumerate types of shock and principles of resuscitation
Rectal prolapse
Gastric outlet obstruction States of TB Lymphadenitis
Lefort’s fracture. Congenital hydrocele
2. Etiopathogenesis and management of Venous ulcer
30 year old female suffered 60% burns due to gas cylinder explosion. Write about fluid and wound management of this patient.
Colonic diverticulosis
Flail chest Ochsner Sherren regimen
Wrist drop.
Write clinical features and management of inguinal hernia
Prophylaxis to prevent deep vein thrombosis in patients
Advantages and disadvantages of minimally invasive surgery
Retro mammary abscess.
Types and management of Hydrocoele
Embryology, clinical features and management of Lingual thyroid
Define Ranula. What are the clinical features? How do you treat the same?
Aetiopathology of gall stones
Venous leg ulcers
Complications of duodenal ulcer
Types of Gall stones.
Pancreatic pseudocyst.
Secondaries in liver
Indications for splenectomy and complications of splenectomy
List the differential diagnosis for haematuria and elaborate on investigations
Enumerate clinical features and write a note on management of parathyroid adenoma
Sigmoid volvulous Complications after Thyroid surgery
Write the surgical management of Chronic calcific pancreatitis
What is Surgical audit? Enumerate the steps in audit cycle.
Hydrocele
Gastro intestinal stromal tumour.
Gastro Oesophageal Reflux Disease
Enumerate clinical features and write a note on management of tension pneumothorax
Aetiology of ileal perforation
Clinical features and management Fibroadenoma of the breast
Enumerate preoperative investigations in patient with SOLITARY NODULAR GOITRE
Diabetic foot
Clinical features of ruptured spleen.
Management of Appendicular mass
Minimal access surgery.
Hypocalcaemia following total thyroidectomy
Enumerate clinical features and management of malignant melanoma
Glasgow coma scale score
Volvulus of sigmoid colon
Ureteric calculi.
Renal cell carcinoma
Clinical features and management of Pleomorphic adenoma
Indications and complications of Split skin grafting
Enumerate clinical features and management of papillary thyroid carcinoma
Inguinal Hernia
Pleomorphic adenoma Pictorial demonstration of blood supply of large bowel
Sliding inguinal hernia
Management of carcinoma prostate.
Ischio-rectal abscess
Types of renal calculi.
Seminoma of testis
Investigations of a surgical patient
Indications and modes of administration of Enteral nutrition
Write in detail about types, clinical features and management of tetanus.
Tuberculosis of kidney.
Rupture of urethra
Dumping syndrome.
Stages of tuberculous lymphadenitis
Peptic Ulcer
Intussusceptions in children
Teratoma of testis
Ectopia vesicae.
Prolapse rectum
Bladder outlet obstruction.
Subdiaphragmatic abscesses
CECT (Contrast Enhanced CT).
Antibiotic prophylaxis
Premalignant conditions in Cancer Penis
Fistula in ano and its types.
Post operative adhesions
Paralytic ileus.
Phimosis
Amoebic liver abscess
Crohn’s disease
Goodsall’s rule
Hirschsprung’s disease
Fournier’s gangrene.
Sebaceous cyst
Calot’s triangle.
Rodent ulcer
Wilm’s tumour
Imperforate anus.
Murphy’s sign
Circumcision
Pilonidal sinus
Desmoid tumour
Annular pancreas
Barret’s oesophagus
Dietl’s crisis.
Complications of inguinal hernia
Torsion of testis
Glasgow coma scale
Enumerate components of Charcot’s triad
Horse-shoe kidney
Haemorrhoids Ranula
Components of Charcot’s Triad
Leukoplakia
Differential diagnosis for mediastinal tumors
Goodsall’s law
Pelvic abscess Trophic Ulcer
Surgical management of Umbilical hernia
Enumerate complications of splenectomy
Reynold’s pentad
Mesenteric Ischaemia Parklands Formula
Surgical procedures for Phimosis
How to diagnose torsion testis?
Richter’s hernia
Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease Management of Basal Cell carcinoma
Surgical anatomy of Circle of Willis
Differential diagnosis for Right iliac fossa mass. Enumerate the components of Ochsner Sherren regimen
Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy Complications of hernia
Indications for Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio Pancreaticogram
Write a note on Metabolic surgeries
Factors affecting wound healing
Immunosuppressant drugs post renal transplant
Discuss clinical features and management of Acute Paronychia
Clinical manifestation of Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1
Mention the components MEN1 and MEN2 syndrome
Stove in chest
Oschner-Sherren regimen.
Pneumoperitoneum
Courvoisier’s law.
Ranson’s criteria
Patent ductus arteriosus
Glasgow coma scale in head injuries
Rule of nine
An HIV positive patient is posted for hernia surgery. What are the universal precautions to be followed?
Duke’s staging for carcinoma rectum
Branchial cyst DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)
Chylolymphatic cyst.
Duke’s staging
Caroli’s disease.
Complications of Vasectomy
Indications for liver transplantation.
Principles of organ transplantation
Prostate specific antigen.
Describe the steps of informed written consent
Charcot’s triad and its significance
Haemangioma
Vagotomy
Tamoxifen
Alpha-feto protein.
Helicobacter Pylori
Sister joseph’s nodule
Ethics in general surgery
Isotope renogram.
Differentiate between hypertrophic scar and keloid
Budd – chiari syndrome
Hourglass stomach.
Radiological features of sigmoid volvulus.
Complications of hydrocele
Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio Pancreatography (ERCP)
Duct papilloma.
Indications for daycare surgery
Incisional Hernia
Uses of Foley’s catheter
Enumerate various factors affecting wound healing
Intestinal Amoebiasis
Ultrasound scanning in abdominal trauma
Zollinger Ellison syndrome
Ischiorectal abscess.
Colostomy
Alvarado scoring.
Enumerate clinical features of cystic hygroma
Gynaecomastia
Chimney sweeper cancer.
Indications for use of Fresh frozen plasma
Complications of superficial parotidectomy
Skin grafting
Appendicular abscess
Complications of peptic ulcer
Tuberculous epididymo-orchitis.
ABPI (Ankle Brachial Pressure Index).
How do you arrive at a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of skin?
Murphy’s syndrome.
Enumerate principles of organ transplantation
Local anaesthesia
Extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy
Pinhole meatus.
Clinical signs of testicular torsion.
Symptoms of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH)
Secondary varicose vein causes.
Immunological basis of transplantation
Ranson’s score for acute pancreatitis
External hemorrhoids.
Use of carbon dioxide in operative surgery
Enumerate components of triage
Enteral nutrition
Watering can perineum.
Serum Amylase
Complications of Thyroidectomy.
Parkland formula for burns
String sign of Kantor.
Types of edges of ulcers
Diathermy in surgery
Ramstedt’s operation
Paraneoplastic syndromes in renal cell carcinoma.
Causes of paralytic ileus
Hypospadias
FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology).
Tongue tie
Above knee amputation
Carotid body tumor.
Peyronie’s disease
Ectopic testis.
Types of urinary calculi
Whipple’s triad.
Triad of GERD.
60 year old diabetic male came with H/o ulcer in left leg for 1 month, H/o fever, oliguria, drowsiness for 2 days. On examination Temp-102F, PR-110/min, BP-70/40mmHg, RR- 25/min, Spo2 – 85% at room air, left leg- 8*6 cm ulcer with copious purulent foul smelling discharge with pitting edema in left lower limb. a) Classify various types of shock. b) Write in detail Pathophysiology, clinical features and Management of this patient.
Enumerate aetiopathology, clinical features and investigations for renal calculi – write about management of STAG HORN Calculus.
Define Shock. Discuss the various types of shock, describe the management of hypovolaemic shock
Classify gall stones. Discuss aetiopathogenesis and management of acute calculous Cholecystitis.
Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Locally Advanced Breast Carcinoma.
Describe pathophysiology, clinical features and management of carcinoma oesophagus.
Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of early breast carcinoma
Define Shock. Enumerate classification of shock. Discuss clinical features and management of septic shock.
Discuss clinical features and management of indirect inguinal hernia.
Describe Pathology, etiology, clinical features and management of acute pancreatitis.
40 year man presented with pain in the right calf while walking for the last six months. He also noticed change in colour of the second toe of right foot. a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) What other history would you like to take? c) Relevant investigation to be done d) Add a note on management of thrombo angitis obliterans
Describe the etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of primary thyrotoxicosis.
What are the predisposing factors for testicular torsion? Describe the clinical presentation of testicular torsion. How will you manage a 18 year old boy with a right testicular torsion?
45 year old lady presents with a painless lump of 2x2 cm size to start within the right breast and has doubled the size in 6 months a) What other history is needed? b) What is your differential diagnosis? c) How do you investigate? d) Add a note on management of early breast carcinoma
Enumerate causes of Dysphagia – write about aetio-pathology, investigations and management of carcinoma of oesophagus.
A forty-five-year-old male, is brought to the casualty with the complaint sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vomiting. He had taken a few analgesic tablets for musculoskeletal pain earlier. On examination he is dehydrated, PR 102/minute, his abdomen is rigid and liver dullness is obliterated. Discuss the probable aetiology, evaluation and treatment options for his condition Define surgical site infections, risk factors for development of SSI and its prevention and management.
Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Toxic multi nodular goiter.
Enumerate the differential diagnosis of a right iliac fossa mass. How do you manage a patient with an Appendicular Mass?
Define shock. What are the different types of shock? Discuss the management of a 32 year old male patient presenting to the Emergency Room, in shock following a Road Traffic Accident
40 yr old female came with painless rapidly progressive lump in left breast for 4 months. On examination 3*3 hard lump with Peau d orange appearance with 1*1 cm hard lump in level 1 axilla. Stage the condition. Write in detail risk factors, investigations and management of this patient.
Discuss aetiology, clinical features and management of small bowel obstruction.
Describe the aetiology, clinical features, evaluation and principles of treatment of thyrotoxicosis 70yrs old man with irreducible groin swelling. Types of inguinal hernia, complications, management for this patient.
Describe the clinical features and management of Hydronephrosis.
Describe the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Hydatid cyst of liver.
Discuss causes of Acute Retention of Urine. Discuss management of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy.
Describe the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of cholelithiasis.
Enumerate cause of peripheral vascular disease. Discuss clinical features, investigations and management of a case of Buerger’s disease.
Describe the etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of Amoebic Liver Abscess.
Discuss briefly etiology, clinical features and management of acute intestinal obstruction.
Describe the risk factors for carcinoma breast: clinical features, investigations and principles of management of carcinoma breast.
40 year old lady presents with swelling in the front of the neck of 10 years duration, gradually increasing in size a) List the differential diagnosis b) Symptoms of hyperthyroidism c) Complications of multinodular goitre d) Investigations for multinodular goitre
Enumerate groin hernia. Write about management of femoral hernia.
A fifty-five-year old male attends the surgical OPD with the complaints of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, progressive jaundice and itching. Discuss the probable causes, evaluation and treatment options for his condition Describe etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of oral malignancies.
Describe the types, etiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Non Seminomatous Germ Cell Tumours of testis.
25 year old lady presents with anxiety, palpitations, weight loss with increased appetite- a) What is your diagnosis? b) How will you investigate this patient? c) What are the medical and surgical management of this patient?
Basal cell carcinoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
Flail chest
Fissure in ano
Venous ulcer
Intermittent claudication.
Vasectomy
Subdural Haematoma
Cold abscess
Undescended testis
Universal precautions
Thomas splint
Cervical rib
Tuberculous cervical lymphadenitis
Sliding hernia
Split skin grafting
Pheochromocytoma
Infantile hydrocele
Marjolin’s ulcer
Triple assessment
Keloid
Barlow’s test
Scaphoid fracture
25-year-old female presented with history of swelling in front of the neck measuring 3x3 cm that moves with deglutition a) What are the probable diagnosis and substantiate b) How do you investigate the case c) Briefly discuss the management
30-year-old woman presenting with painless swelling of six months duration in front of the lower part of neck. Swelling has two nodules, swelling moves with deglutition. Answer the following • What is the diagnosis • What are the investigations required • Discuss the complications and management
A 60-year-old lady complaints of a painless swelling of 1-year duration in her right breast. On examination it showed a hard 3x2 cm non tender swelling in the right upper quadrant along with a mobile 2 cm hard node in the (Right) axilla. a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) What are the clinical manifestations of this disease c) What are the investigations you do in this patient. d) Discuss the principles in the treatment of this condition
A 40 years old male presented with swelling of left testis noticed after fall from 2 wheeler. On examination, enlarged left testis with normal cord structures and testicular sensation lost. Right testis – normal. Abdominal examination shows swelling in epigastric region. Answer the following: a) What is your diagnosis and how will you proceed b) Classification of the disease c) Management of the above condition
A 45 years old female presented with lump in the left breast since 6 months of size 4x3 cms in the upper outer quadrant, on examination lump is hard in consistency with nipple retraction, a single mobile axillary lymphadenopathy on the same side a) What is the probable diagnosis b) How do you investigate this case c) Briefly discuss the management
What is your clinical diagnosis and what are the invasb196estigations to be done" Corrected as "What is your clinical diagnosis and what are the investigations to be done?" • What is your clinical diagnosis and what are the invasb196estigations to be done • Discuss the treatment • Add a note on the complications of the surgical treatment and follow up of the patient
35-year-old female presented with history of swelling of 5x4cm since 4 months in front of the neck which moves with deglutition with loss of weight in spite of increased appetite. She is irritable with lack of sleep and oligomenorrhea. On examination tachycardia noted, patient looks anxious with lid lag and staring look. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) How do you investigate c) Briefly discuss management
A 50year old male, who is on treatment for diabetes mellitus for 10 years is admitted with history of an injury in his right foot. Examination showed that he is febrile, the right foot and leg is oedematous reddish, along with an ulcer with slough on the dorsum of foot and black patches around it. • What is the clinical condition • What are the investigations required • How is the situation managed • How is the person rehabilitated
A 50 years old male, traffic constable has come to surgical OPD with complaints of dull aching pain in both legs for past 10 years along with a small ulcer over right leg since 1 month. On examination there is dilated and tortuous veins over both lower limbs along with a 4x3 cm ulcer over the medical malleolus on right leg. Answer the following: • What is the most probable diagnosis in this case and how will you proceed to investigate this patient. • Discuss in detail upon the various management options available for this patient. • Discuss about conservative management of ulcer in this case, if the patient is not willing for surgery
A 35year old lady presents with history of palpitations and weight loss despite an increased appetite since 4 months. She has tachycardia and a uniformly enlarged firm goiter. Answer the following questions: a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) What are the other symptoms and signs which would support the diagnosis c) What investigations would be required to confirm the diagnosis d) Briefly outline the management of this condition
A 30 year old female presented to the casualty with history of burn injury to the head and neck, both upper limbs and the front and back of chest. a) How will you assess the area and degree of burns b) Describe pathophysiology of burns and its classification c) Outline the management for this patient
Liver abscess.
Classify burns injury. Discuss the management of 60% burns in a 40-year-old man
Discuss the pathophysiology clinical features, investigations and treatment of venous ulcer
Management of haemothorax and indications of thoracotomy
GERD
Define shock, discuss the clinical features, classification, presentation and management of various types of shock
Discuss the types of burns and its management.
Classify wounds. Describe factors affecting wound healing.
Discuss the clinical features, investigations and treatment of toxic Goiter.
Define and classify shock and discuss the initial management & resuscitation in shock.
Discuss the clinical features, investigation and treatment of acute limb ischemia
Principles, indications, complications of blood transfusion
Diagnosis and management of subdural heamatoma
Solitary thyroid nodule
Describe briefly pathogenesis of Nodular goitre and its management
Ca Penis
Fluid management in burns.
Tetanus
Seminoma testis.
Extradural hematoma
Diagnosis and management of Deep vein thrombosis
Extra dural hematoma
Principles of treatment of hand infections
Ameloblastoma
Define gangrene, describe clinical types, causes, clinical features and management of atherosclerotic gangrene of lower limb
Tracheostomy
Triad associated with Retroperitoneal Fibrosis a) Beck’s Triad b) Carney’s Triad c) Galezia Triad d) Sandblom Triad
Plunging ranula
Neck dissection
Gall stones.
Papillary carcinoma thyroid
Hormonal therapy of breast cancer
Classify salivary tumors, describe Warthin’s tumor
Implantation dermoid cyst
Necrotizing soft-tissue infections
Complications of hydrocele surgery
Pain management
Hypokalemia
Hiatus hernia
Triple assessment in breast diseases
Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Cystic hygroma
Indication for artificial nutritional support, Describe in detail about Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)
Renal stones
Pressure ulcer
Bladder stones
Buerger’s disease
Colonoscopy
Pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland
Urolithiasis
ERCP
Fluid resuscitation in burns patient
Medullary carcinoma thyroid
Carcinoma tongue
Fecolith
Cystosarcoma phyllodes
Prophylactic antibiotics
Retrosternal goiter
Describe causes, clinical features and treatment of hyponatremia
Ludwig’s angina
MOHS- micro graphic surgery
Complications of varicose veins of lower limbs
Sentinel node biopsy
Regarding hypospadiasis, identify the wrong statement a. Urethral opening is on the dorsum of the penis b. External meatus opens on the lumbar side of the penis c. Ventral aspect of the prepuce is poorly developed d. Ventral deformity of the erect pennis (chordae)
Describe types of wound healing
Phases of wound healing
Thyroiditis
Informed consent
Types of regional anesthesia
Fat Embolism
Classify lymphedema, describe clinical features and management
Intra venous anesthesia
Dercum’s disease
Lumbar sympthectomy
Bone grafts
Congenital hydrocoele
Claudication
Types of dermoids
Crush syndrome.
Chemodectoma
Secondary haemorrhage
Sportman hernia
Stress ulcers
Urethral stricture
Wound healing
Primary lymphoedema
During a surgical procedure, a patient experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What is the immediate priority a) Continue the surgery without interruption b) Administer a large volume of fluids rapidly c) Identify the cause of the hypotension and take appropriate corrective measures d) Call for a psychiatric consultation
Couinaud's segments of the liver
Routes of spread of renal cell carcinoma
Frey’s syndrome
Fluid resuscitation in burns
Lisfranc’s amputation
A patient requires long-term nutritional support following resection of more than 200 cm of gangrenous small bowel. What is the most appropriate access a) Peripheral intravenous catheter c) Butterfly needle b) Central venous catheter d) Feeding jejunostomy
Staghorn calculus
Encysted hydrocele of the cord
Glasgow coma scale score for head injury
Marker of small cell cancer of lung is a. Synaptobrevin b. Chromogranin ها c. Cytokeratin d. Vimentin
Ulnar paradox
Cubitus varus
A patient presents with a dislocated tooth. What is the best initial management a) Replant the tooth immediately if possible and seek dental consultation b) Leave the tooth as it is and advise rinsing with water c) Extract the tooth to prevent further damage d) Apply ice to the area and wait for it to heal
Phylloides tumour of breast
Pneumothorax
Jaipur foot
Claw hand - deformity
Split skin graft
Mallet finger
Triage
The most common long term complication of perineal abscess is a) Incontinence b) Perineal pain c) Tenesmus d) Fistula in ano
Osteoclastoma
Rule of 9 in burns
Percutaneous tracheostomy
Bone graft
Intercostal tube drainage
Open fracture
Outline the causes of Hematuria
Mastalgia
A 65-year-old male presents with painless jaundice which is progressive and there are scratch marks over body on examination a) Discuss the differential diagnosis b) Elaborate on the investigation algorithm including the role of imaging (ERCP, MRCP) c) Outline the patient preparation and surgical options with a brief mention of their complications d) Discuss the importance of palliative care in inoperable cases what are the palliative measures feasible
Paronychia
Fibroadenosis
Submandibular sialolithiasis
Aortic aneurysm
Nerve repair.
Pre malignant condition of carcinoma penis
Hydrocoele
Gout
Bupivacaine
Describe the anesthetic considerations for a patient undergoing emergency laparotomy for a perforated peptic ulcer. a) Preoperative assessment and optimization. b) Intraoperative management, including fluid balance and monitoring. c) Postoperative pain management and potential complications.
Fibroadenoma
Splenectomy is not useful in a. Aplastic anemia b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. Thalassemia d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Discuss the principles of management of a child with Hirschsprung's disease.
Treatment of venous ulcer
Gas used in laparoscoру a. Oxygen b. Nitric dioxide c. Carbon dioxide d. Nitrous oxide
Multiple endocrine neoplasm syndrome
Patellar tap.
Explain the classification and management of vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) in children
Raynaud’s disease
Advantages and limitations of minimal access surgery
Describe the complications of gastrectomy and their prevention.
List four causes of small bowel obstruction.
Describe in detail with examples - Conflicts in professional relationship
Outline the steps of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist
Describe the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and principles of management of dislocation of the shoulder joint.
Describe the clinical features, investigation and principles of management of Tuberculosis of the knee joint.
Describe the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and principles of management of osteosarcoma of distal end of femur
Arthrocentesis
Plaster of Paris
Pseudoarthrosis
Skeletal traction.
Discuss the etiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of 10-year-old child with acute osteomyelitis of proximal tibia.
Classify shoulder dislocation. Describe clinical features, diagnosis and management of anterior dislocation of shoulder in adults.
Discuss classification, mechanism, clinical types of fracture healing, general principles of management of fracture
A 65-year-old lady presents with inability to walk following a fall at her home. Her left lower limb is externally rotated and shortened. Examination reveals tenderness at the left hip. Answer the following: • What are the most likely diagnoses • Discuss management of this patient • How can this injury be prevented
Define osteomyelitis. Describe etiology, pathology, clinical and radiological features and management of chronic osteomyelitis.
Describe mechanism of injury, clinical features and management of posterior dislocation of hip
Clinicoradiological features of osteosarcoma.
Management of Brodie’s abscess
Neuropathic arthritis.
Hand deformities of Rheumatoid arthritis.
Ulnar claw hand
Evaluation of Genu varum in a child.
McMurray’s test
Simple bone cyst
Fracture clavicle.
Charcot’s joint.
Spondylolisthesis
Features and uses of Thomas splint.
Giant cell tumor of bone.
Torticollis
Classification of Non-union in fracture.
Radiological features of Developmental Dysplasia of Hip (DDH).
Deformities in CTEV.
Radial nerve palsy
Galeazzi fracture dislocation.
Osteoid osteoma
Septic arthritis principles of management
MRC grading of muscle power.
Complications in fracture shaft of femur.
Anterior drawer test
Foot drop splint
Clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Complications of chronic osteomyelitis
Bursa around knee
Saturday night palsy
Intussusception.
Umbilical hernia
Pseudo cyst of pancreas.
Types of mesenteric cysts.
A 70 year old male presents with recent anorexia, early satiety and weight loss. Physical examination reveals pallor and a palpable epigastric mass which moves with respiration. • What is the most probable diagnosis • How will you investigate • Briefly outline the management
An elderly female presented with pain and distension of abdomen with reduced appetite and loss of weight since 4 months. The patient also complains of yellowish discolouration of skin, eyes and passage of clay coloured stools since one month. On examination scratch marks present all over the body. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) What are the relevant investigations c) Discuss the management
A 50-year-old man came to emergency department with severe intermittent abdominal pain, absolute constipation since two days with history of late vomiting. On physical examination abdomen is distended. Tense, tender and sluggish bowel sounds present. Rectal exam is empty. • Likely diagnosis • What are the investigations to conform diagnosis • Management in brief
21 years old male presents to casualty with abdominal pain starting around the umbilicus and shifting to right iliac fossa with history of fever and vomiting for one-day duration. Clinical examination reveals fever with tachycardia, guarding, tenderness and rebound tenderness in right iliac fossa. Answer the following: • What is the probable diagnosis • What are the investigations • How will you manage this patient
A 55 years old woman is admitted with history of progressive jaundice, loss of appetite, generalized weakness, itching all over the body and weight loss. On examination patient has hepatomegaly and a globular swelling in the right hypochondrium. Answer the following: • What is the probable diagnosis • What are the investigations to diagnose the disease • Discuss the management
46 year old male patient presented with diffuse pain in the abdomen since 3 days, with 3-4 episodes of vomiting, not passing flatus and stools since 2 days. On examination there is tachycardia, distended abdomen with no guarding and no rigidity, bowel sounds sluggish in nature. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) What are the relevant investigations c) Briefly describe about the management of the condition
Male aged 30 years presented in surgery casualty with severe vomiting of large quantity of blood with bloody stools in state of unconsciousness. History of chronic alcohol intake a) What is the diagnosis b) What investigation required to confirm the diagnosis c) Resuscitation and management of the condition
Etiology, clinical features and management of cholelithiasis.
Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor (GIST)
Ileo caecal tuberculosis.
Koch’s abdomen
Carcinoid tumor
Duodenal ulcer
A 40 year old obese lady presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain since 1day. She has tenderness and guarding in the right hypochondrium. • What is the likely diagnosis • What are the relevant investigations • Outline the management briefly
A 20-year-old presented with pain right lower abdomen of one day duration. He gives h/o pain around the umbilicus on the previous day. He also has nausea and fever of one day duration a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) What are the relevant investigations c) Describe briefly about management
35 year old male brought to casualty with complaints of severe upper abdomen pain patient is rolling on the bed, vomiting, pain radiating to back, pain worse soon after eating, history of chronic alcoholic abuse examination of abdomen, tender and distended, fever and rapid pulse present • What is the probable diagnosis • What all investigation is required to confirm diagnosis • Management of the patient
35 years old male, a known case of acid peptic disease is presenting with acute onset of upper abdominal pain, guarding and rigidity of upper abdomen with obliteration of liver dullness and tachycardia. Answer the following: • What is the most probable diagnosis • What are the relevant investigations • How will you manage this patient
A young male is brought to casualty with massive hematemesis. On examination patient has pallor. His pulse rate is 120/min. BP is 80/60 mmHg. Answer the following: • What are the probable causes • How will you investigate • Mention briefly the management
50Y old male patient presented with vomiting about 1-1.5 hrs after consuming food since 3 months and tolerates only oral liquids and soft diet. History of significant weight loss and loss of appetite present. He also has history of peptic ulcer and is on treatment for the same since 2 years. No history of malena, no history of altered bowel habits. On examination, abdomen is distended, visible gastric peristalsis present. a) What is the clinical diagnosis b) What are the relevant investigations c) Describe briefly about the management of the condition
55-year-old male patient presented with acute onset pain which started at the epigastric region later spread to the entire abdomen. He is lying still, with shallow rapid breath. O/E his abdomen is rigid and diffusely tender • Possible diagnosis • Investigation • Management
Alterations in liver function tests in obstructive jaundice.
Curling’s ulcer
Pseudomembranous colitis
Meckel’s diverticulitis
Enumerate complications of gall stones.
Mention causes of reflux esophagitis
Colonic pseudo obstruction
Pancreatic calculi
Complications of acute pancreatitis.
Complications of splenectomy
Amoebic colitis
Blunt abdominal trauma evaluation
Types of colostomy
Pelvic abscess
Sigmoidoscopy
Branchial cyst.
Complications of Blood Transfusion.
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN).
Ranula.
Clinical features and treatment of tetanus.
Malignant Melanoma.
Upper GI endoscopy.
Dermoid cyst.
Horner’s syndrome.
Carbuncle.
Felon.
Which colour of triage is given the highest priority. a) Red b) Green c) Yellow d) Black
Most common benign tumors in Parotid gland a) Pleomorphic adenoma b) Warthins tumour c) Pheochromocytoma d) Sialoblastoma
The most common cause of fat embolism is a) Weight gain b) Weight loss c) Bone fracture d) Infection
Commonest cause of AV fistula is a) Congenital b) Traumatic c) Iatrogenic d) Tumour erosion
Which of the following associated with Xerostomia, Except a) Antidepressants b) Sjogrens syndrome c) Chronic anxiety d) Cholenergic medications
In triage green colour indicates a) Ambulatory patient b) Dead or Moribund c) High priority treatment or transfer d) Medium priority or transfer
Hyper acute transplant rejection occurs in a) Type 1 HSV b) Type 2 HSV c) Type 3 HSV d) Type 4 HSV
All of the following are naturally available Suture Material Except a) Catgut b) Silk c) Thread d) Vicryl
Gas used in Laparoscopy a) Oxygen b) Nitric dioxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Nitrous oxide
Hypotension in acute spinal injury is due to: a) Loss of sympathetic tone b) Loss of parasympathetic tone c) Orthostatic hypotension d) Vasovagal attack
Match the following: Colour Codes Injury 1. Red A. Tension pneumothorax 2. Yellow B. Severe brain damage 3. Green C. Compound fracture 4. Black D. Simple fracture a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B b) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
First line management in Hypovolemic shock is a) Vasopressors b) Blood transfusion c) IV Crystalloids d) Steroids
A 32-year-old male is receiving a blood transfusion after being involved in a road traffic accident. A few minutes after the transfusion he complains of loin pain. his observations show temperature 39o C, HR 130bpm and BP 95/40mm Hg. What is the best test to confirm his diagnosis. a) USG Abdomen b) Direct coomb's test c) Blood cultures d) Sickle cell test
Most common organ injured in blunt trauma abdomen a) Stomach b) Spleen c) Pancreas d) Kidney
Which of following will be most important prognostic indicator in patient with stage 1 melanoma. a) Site b) Stage c) Lymph node d) Depth of melanoma
Which of the following is not scanned by e-FAST. a) Pericardium b) Liver c) Bowel d) Spleen
Massive blood transfusion is defined as a) whole blood volume in 24 hrs b) half blood volume in 24 hrs c) 40 percent blood volume in 24 hrs d) 60 percent blood volume in 24 hrs
60-year-old farmer had renal transplant 15 years ago presents with rapidly growing lump on dorsum of his hand for past 6 months. It is painless but has recently become ulcerated with discharge and bleeding. It has not responded to usual wound care and dressing. what is diagnosis. a) BCC b) Fungal infection c) SCC d) CMV infection
True regarding benign mixed parotid tumour is: a) Slow growing and lobular b) Firm and capsulated c) 50% of parotid tumour. d) All of the above
compensatory mechanism in a patient with hypovolemic shock a) increased renal blood flow b) Decrease in cortisol c) Decreased in vasopressin d) Decreased cutaneous blood flow
Nasogastric tube length is measured by a) Nose to ear to midpoint between xiphisternum and umbilicus b) Nose to ear to xiphoid process c) Nose to umbilicus d) Nose to ear to pubic symphysis
During rounds you have been asked to examine patient with ulcer over face. Which of the following feature will raise suspicion of it being squamous cell carcinoma a) Everted edged b) Inverted edged c) Rolled out edged d) Undermined edged
All are Acyanotic Congenital Heart disease except a) ASD b) Tetralogy of Fallot c) PDA d) VSD
The standard Triple therapy of Immunosuppression in organ transplantation includes all except a) Calcineurin inhibitors b) Anti proliferative agents c) Steroids d) mTOR inhibitors
According to NICE criteria, CT is indicated immediate after mild head injury for which of the following patient. a) An episode of vomiting b) Ongoing headache c) Loss of consciousness at the time of injury d) Age over 65
Most important HLA marker for Organ rejection after transplantation a) HLA - A b) HLA - B c) HLA - DR d) HLA - C
Which of the following parts of the body is not affected by leprosy a) Testes b) Ovary c) Nasal Mucosa d) Axilla
Claw hand occurs due to palsy of a) Radial nerve b) Ulnar nerve c) Saphenous nerve d) Median nerve
Most commonly used gas in Laparoscopic Surgery a) Helium b) N2O c) Oxygen d) CO2
Cock's peculiar tumour is a) Papilloma b) Infected sebaceous cyst c) Cylindroma d) Squamous cell carcinoma
A 27-year-old female, weighing about 55 kgs, is brought to Emergency room with 45% burns involving Chest and Extremities, sustained in kitchen. Discuss: a. What is the Immediate care. b. How is Body surface area assessed by 'Rule of nine'. c. Pathophysiology of burns. d. Calculate fluid management by Parkland formula e. Mention two late complications.
A 35-year-old male, heavy smoker, is seen for cramping pain in both calves after walking for 500 mts, which is relieved by rest. On examination of ankle and foot region, pulses are diminished and there is hair loss with brittle nails. Discuss the: a. Probable condition. b. Pathophysiology. c. Radiological evaluation. d. Principles of management
A 25-year-old male is seen in emergency room for a laceration over right hand following a fall from bike on the road. a) How the wounds can be classified. b) What are the types of wound healing. c) What are the three stages of wound healing. d) What are the local general factors affecting wound healing.
A 55 yr old male Security guard presents with prominent veins in his right lower limb and pain that gradually increases at the end of the day. On examination, dilated veins are found along the antero-medial aspect of the affected limb and an active ulcer 4x3 cm, proximal to medial malleolus. He was advised Venous doppler which reported incompetence at Sapheno- femoral junction and Multiple perforators in leg and Negative for Deep vein thrombosis. a. Classify the condition by CEAP. b. Describe the risk factors and physiology associated. c. Describe some important clinical tests. d. Describe the ulcer e. Outline the Management of the ulcer and Varicose veins.
Define Shock, describe pathophysiology, classification and management of Hypovolaemic Shock.
A 45-year-old male, smoker, is seen for a painless progressive swelling 2 X 2 cm, in the right parotid region, since one year. On examination, it appears to be a nodule arising from parotid gland. Discuss: a) What is the probable diagnosis. b) Clinical features of malignant transformation. c) Importance of oral cavity examination. d) Relevant investigations and management.
Hyperkalaemia.
Classify burns based on depth. Calculate the fluid volume for 60 kg weight and 30 % deep burn surface area, based on Parkland Formula.
Massive Blood transfusion and its complications.
Surgical audit.
Explain the compensatory mechanisms that occur in the body for Metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, with one example each.
General and Local factors effecting wound healing.
Amputation.
Tetanus-Clinical features and Management.
Immunosuppressive therapy.
Complications of undescended testis.
Venous Doppler for Varicose Veins.
Warthin’s tumour.
Types of skin grafts and advantages of any one.
Imaging for thoracic injury.
Adson’s test.
Cancrum oris.
Para Phimosis.
Cleft Lip.
Tumour markers.
Three examples of Day care surgery.
Colles fracture
Baker's cyst
Malunion
a) Shoulder Rotator cuff disease b) Tuberculous osteomyelitis
Bursa
Carpel tunnel syndrome
Sciatic nerve injury
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Dentigerous cyst
Mallory Weiss tear
45year old male patient presented with upper abdominal pain and vomiting of one day duration. Pain radiating to back. There is history of alcohol intake 2 days back. On examination there is tachycardia, mild abdominal distension and tenderness with guarding in epigastrium. a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) How do you investigate c) How do you manage this patient
27year old male patient presented with pain in right lower abdomen, vomiting and fever of 3 days duration. On examination there is tachycardia, pyrexia and tender mass in right iliac fossa. a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) What are the relevant investigations c) How do you treat this patient
65years old male patient presents with massive abdominal distension, absolute constipation and pain abdomen of one-day duration. On examination there is tachycardia, massive abdominal distension and tenderness, no guarding or rigidity plain X ray of erect abdomen showed coffee bean sign. a) What is your diagnosis b) What are the etiological factors c) How do you investigate and treat this patient
35 year old male patient with history suggestive of peptic ulcer disease presents to emergency with complaints of severe diffuse abdominal pain, vomiting and abdominal distension of 1 day duration. On examination, abdomen is distended, tender with guarding and rebound tenderness. a) What is your probable diagnosis b) How do you manage this patient
Assertion (A): Incisional hernias are a common complication of abdominal surgery Reason (R): They occur due to inadequate wound healing a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Carcinoid tumour of appendix
Assertion (A): Undescended testis (cryptorchidism) increases the risk of infertility and testicular cancer Reason (R): The higher temperature in the abdomen impairs sperm development a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Meckel’s diverliculum
Regional anaesthesia
Assertion (A): Dental caries is a preventable disease Reason (R): Regular oral hygiene and fluoride use are effective preventive measures a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Mammography
Assertion (A): Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) is a rapid tool for detecting intra-abdominal free fluid Reason (R): It is highly accurate in identifying solid organ injuries a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
Undescended testes
In the management of a child with acute appendicitis, the essential steps include: 1) Laxatives 2) Prompt surgical intervention, preoperative antibiotics 3) Managing pain 4) Adequate hydration a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 2 and 4 d) 1 and 3
Causes of Haematuria
Regarding the principles of informed consent, the crucial elements are: 1) Patient's signature and Doctor’s approval 2) Disclosure of risks and benefits 3) Patient's capacity to understand, and voluntary decision 4) Guarantee of a successful outcome, and family's approval a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) can be minimized by: 1) Multimodal antiemetic prophylaxis 2) Prolonged fasting, minimal fluid intake and antiemetics only if symptoms develop 3) Adequate hydration and minimizing opioid use 4) Deep breathing exercises and opioid analgesics a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 2 and 4
Discuss how you will obtain consent for a permanent colostomy from a patient.
How will you counsel a patient for radiotherapy for a recently diagnosed cancer rectum Precise answers
The advantages of laparoscopic surgery compared to open surgery typically include: 1) Smaller incisions and reduced blood loss 2) Faster recovery 3) Higher risk of complications, longer operative time 4) Similar recovery time but increased cost a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4
Surgical treatment of Haemorrhoids
Complications of ulcerative colitis
Triangle of doom
Diagnosis and treatment of acute intussusception
Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Describe Gustilo and Anderson Classification and management of Open fractures.
Carpal Tunnel syndrome.
De-Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
Describe aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, management of Developmental Dysplasia of Hip.
Describe etiopathogenesis, clinical and pathological features of Osteosarcoma. Management of Osteosarcoma of Proximal Tibia in a 20-year-old patient.
Classification and management of Fracture Neck of Femur in Adults.
Management of a 2-year-old child presenting with suspected Septic arthritis of Knee.
Classification of Joints. Short notes
Gait -definition and examples.
Role of exercise as a therapeutic modality.
Differences between Primary and Secondary fracture healing.
Deformities in Erb’s Palsy.
Radiological findings of Chronic Osteomyelitis.
What is Distraction osteogenesis. Give two examples where it is used.
Gun Stock deformity.
Three clinical tests for Ulnar nerve (Function).
Deformities in Tuberculosis of the Knee.
Types of Bone graft.
Tension Band Wiring-principle.
Stages of Fracture healing.
Deformities in Congenital Talus Equino Varus.
A 14 years old boy with a swelling of distal thigh of 6 years duration presents with a 3 months history of pain in the swelling and a recent increase in size. There is no history of trauma. Patient is moderately built. Examination reveals a firm to hard tender swelling localized to the medial aspect of distal metaphysis of the femur. Discuss: • Give the probable diagnosis • Outline its management
Myositis ossificans.
Osteogenesis imperfecta.
Stress fracture.
Epiphyseal injuries.
Gunstock deformity elbow joint.
Morrant Baker’s cyst.
Anatomical classification of fracture neck of femur.
Bennett’s fracture dislocation.
Assertion (A): General anesthesia involves a reversible loss of consciousness Reason (R): It primarily works by blocking pain signals a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true, but R is false b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false, but R is true
In the management of urinary stones, the following considerations are important: 1) Stone size 2) Location 3) Composition 4) Presence of infection a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The characteristic finding in Barium swallow in a case of achalasia cardia is a) Bird beak appearance c) Lead pipe appearance b) Apple core appearance d) Leather bottle appearance
Previous-year question papers. Question patterns derived from published papers for General Surgery.