Kerala University of Health Sciences Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of SurgeryMicrobiology Previous Year Question Papers
2160012nd Year · 23 papers · previous-year papers
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - March 2025 (205001 2010 Scheme)2025 · March · 2010 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - March 2025 (206001 2010 Scheme)2025 · March · 2010 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - August 2025 (205001 2010 Scheme)2025 · August · 2010 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - March 2025 (216001 2019 Scheme)2025 · March · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - December 2024 (216001 2019 Scheme)2024 · December · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - June 2024 (215001 2019 Scheme)2024 · June · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - June 2024 (216001 2019 Scheme)2024 · June · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - March 2024 (205001 2010 Scheme)2024 · March · 2010 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - March 2024 (216001 2019 Scheme)2024 · March · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - March 2024 (215001 2019 Scheme)2024 · March · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - January 2023 (216001 2019 Scheme)2023 · January · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - July 2023 (215001 2019 Scheme)2023 · July · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - January 2023 (215001 2019 Scheme)2023 · January · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - July 2023 (216001 2019 Scheme)2023 · July · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - October 2022 (205001 2010 Scheme)2022 · October · 2010 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - February 2022 (215001 2019 Scheme)2022 · February · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - July 2022 (216001 2019 Scheme)2022 · July · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - October 2022 (206001 2010 Scheme)2022 · October · 2010 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - February 2022 (216001 2019 Scheme)2022 · February · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - July 2022 (215001 2019 Scheme)2022 · July · 2019 Scheme
- KUHS MBBS Microbiology Previous Question Paper - May 2022 (206001 Revised)2022 · May · Revised
Showing 20 of 396 questions
Malignant pustule
Prions
Name any TWO sporicidal disinfectants
Hydatid disease.
Describe the pathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of poliomyelitis
Name four complications of Falciparum malaria.
Draw and label fertilized egg of Ascaris lumbricoides
Antigenic variations of influenza virus
Cryptococcus neoformans
Standard tests for syphilis
MMR vaccine
Candida albicans.
Name ONE antiviral drug used for treatment of influenza
Name TWO oncogenic viruses
Name two selective media
A 45 year old smoker comes to medicine OPD with a history of low grade fever with an evening rise of temperature, loss of weight and productive cough for the past two months. Recently, he had hemoptysis. Microscopic examination of sputum sample revealed acid fast bacilli. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the etiological agent c) Describe the pathogenesis of this disease d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail e) Discuss the drug resistance that can occur in this etiological agent f) Name the national health programme for this disease
A young adult female presented with headache, fever and abdominal discomfort for the past 5 days. On examination, she was toxic with a temperature of 1010 F, coated tongue and mild splenomegaly were also present. a) What is the most probable diagnosis. Name the etiological agents b) Describe the pathogenesis of this disease c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail d) Add a note on the treatment and vaccines available for this condition
A 50 year old male presented to medicine OPD with evening rise of temperature, weight loss and productive cough for the past two months. Microscopic examination of the sputum revealed acid fast bacilli. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the etiological agent c) Discuss the pathogenesis of this disease d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis including newer methods of diagnosis e) Define multidrug resistance of this etiological agent
A 22-year-old male came to the Medicine OPD with complaints of increased frequency of loose stools with blood and mucus since 2 days. (a) What is the clinical diagnosis (b) What are the TWO common etiological agents (c)How do you differentiate the parasitic and bacterial agents causing the above condition?" (d) Draw neatly labeled diagrams of the morphological forms seen in stool of the parasitic etiological agent. (e) How does one get the above infection (f) Which is the infective stage to man (g) List the extra intestinal complication of this condition and its laboratory diagnosis (h) Name TWO drugs to treat the above condition
A 11-year-old girl, presented with history of agitation, delirium, abnormal behavior, hallucinations, difficulty in swallowing liquids and fear of water. Her parents reported that she was bitten by a stray dog on her right leg two months prior to presentation for which she had received only oral antibiotics and injection tetanus toxoid. a) What is your clinical diagnosis and name the causative agent. b) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the causative agent. c) Describe the pathogenesis. d) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis in detail. e) Add a note on the prophylactic measures available for this disease.
A 30-year-old female came to emergency department with productive cough, fever, chest pain and shortness of breath for past 4 days. On examination, her temperature was 1010F respiratory rate was 30/min, Chest examination revealed decreased breath sounds on left lung. Chest X-ray showed homogenous ground glass opacity in left lower lobe. Sputum upon gram staining showed gram positive cocci arranged in pairs with plenty of pus cells. (a) What is the clinical condition. (b) What is the causative organism. (c) Enumerate the other causative organisms of this condition. (d) Laboratory diagnosis of the above condition. (e) Vaccine strategy for above condition.
A 40 year old male presented with complaints of unexplained fever, loss of weight, persistent diarrhoea and generalized lymphadenopathy for past six months. He gave a history of exposure with multiple sex partners a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) Describe the modes of transmission of this disease c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail d) Name two acid fast parasites causing diarrhoea in this condition e) Describe the post exposure prophylaxis of this disease
A 5-year-old girl was brought in by her mother with the symptoms of fever, vomiting (7-8 episodes) and altered sensorium for the last 24 h. Central nervous system examination showed that she was drowsy, had signs of meningeal irritation, neck rigidity. Examination of CSF showed neutrophilic predominance. (a) What is the clinical diagnosis. (b) Name SIX common probable causes of this clinical condition. (c) Name two rapid tests to detect these causes. (d) What are the confirmatory tests that can be done in the laboratory. (e) Name the antimicrobial given empirically for this condition.seen. (f) Give details of vaccines available for these microbial agents. Name two other drugs which can be used for treating this condition (g)Give details of vaccines available for these microbial agents
A 42-year-old female presented to the OPD with complaints of urinary frequency and urgency and pain in the lower abdomen. One month back she was treated for the same complaint. The Urine culture showed significant growth of lactose fermenting colonies which were Gram negative bacilli. a) What is most probable clinical diagnosis. b) What are the various methods of collection of urine for culture. c) Name the causative agents of this condition. d) What is significant bacteriuria. e) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this condition. f) Write four antibiotics used to treat the condition. g) Write the measures used to prevent the infection in catheterized patients
A two-year-old child was brought to casualty with high grade fever, vomiting and drowsiness. On examination, the child had neck rigidity and other signs of meningeal irritation. CSF examination was suggestive of acute bacterial meningitis a) List the bacteria causing acute bacterial meningitis b) Describe the pathogenesis of pneumococcal meningitis c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of pneumococcal meningitis d) Discuss the prevention of pneumococcal meningitis
A 4 year old boy was brought to the emergency with a history of altered sensorium, inability to eat and one episode of seizure in the last 2 days. The child used to play with street dogs. i. What is the likely clinical diagnosis a) Guillain barre syndrome c) Rabies b) ECHO virus encephalitis d) Herpes Simplex encephalitis ii. An antemortem diagnostic method is a) Negri bodies in brain by Immunohistochemistry c) Antibody detection in saliva b) Antigen in corneal smear by immunofluorescence d) RNA in brain by RTPCR iii. Vaccine to prevent rabies in humans is a) Sheep brain vaccine b) Neural vaccine c) Human diploid cell vaccine d) Jeryl Lynn vaccine iv. Rabies virus can be transmitted to humans by all of the following routes EXCEPT a) Bite by infected bats c) Cornea transplantation b) Inhalation of virus containing aerosols d) Consumption of raw milk of infected animals v. The protein which acts as virulence factor is the a) Nucleoprotein b) Glycoprotein G c) Matrix protein d) Hemagglutinin Question numbers (vi)-(x) are multiple response type questions. Read the statements & mark the answers appropriately. vi. Cholera 1) Has potential to cause pandemics 2) Hanging drop test of stool sample helps in rapid diagnosis 3) Causes dysentery in children 4) Can present as hypovolemic shock in severe cases leading to death a) 1, 2, 3 are correct b) 1, 3, 4 are correct c) 2, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 4 are correct vii. Bile-stained eggs are seen in infection with 1) Ascaris 2) Hookworm 3) Trichuris 4) Taenia a) 1, 2, 3 are correct b) 1, 2, 4 are correct c) 1, 3, 4 are correct d) 2, 3, 4 are correct viii. Hand foot and mouth disease is NOT caused by 1) Cytomegalovirus 2) Coxsackie virus 3) Calicivirus 4) ECHO virus a) 1, 2, 3 are correct b) 2, 3, 4 are correct c) 1, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 4 are correct ix. This is NOT a mode of transmission of Schistosoma hematobium 1) Bite of Tsetse fly 2) Consumption of vegetables contaminated with metacercaria 3) Penetration of cercaria through the skin 4) Blood transfusion a) 2, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3 are correct c) 1, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 4 are correct x. A 28 year old male, following consumption of canned food, came with complaints of difficulty in swallowing, blurred vision, which soon progressed to respiratory paralysis. This bacteria is NOT the likely etiology. 1) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli 2) Clostridium botulinum 3) Campylobacter jejuni 4) Yersinia enterocolitica a) 1, 2, 4 are correct b) 1, 3, 4 are correct c) 2, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 3 are correct Question numbers (xi) – (xv) are single response types xi. Which of the following parasites causes keratitis. a) Acanthamoeba b) Naegleria c) Balamuthia d) Sappinia xii. Meningitis caused by the following agents can be prevented by vaccination EXCEPT a) Neisseria meningitidis c) Hemophilus influenzae b) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Listeria monocytogenes xiii. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by Mycobacterium a) marinum b) kansasii c) ulcerans d) abscessus xiv. River blindness is caused by a) Brugia malayi b) Oncocerca volvulus c) Loa loa d) Mansonella species xv. Diphtheria vaccine is a a) Subunit vaccine b) Toxoid vaccine c) Whole cell vaccine d) Recombinant vaccine Question numbers (xvi) – (xx) consists of two Statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below. xvi. A: Whooping cough is caused by Bordetella pertussis. R: Whooping cough is mainly seen in adults. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true xvii. A: Specific antivirals are available to treat Japanese Encephalitis. R: Japanese Encephalitis is the most common cause of vaccine preventable encephalitis in Asia. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true xviii. A: Cryptococcus neoformans cannot be cultured. R: Rapid diagnosis of Cryptococcal meningitis can be done on CSF sample by India Ink preparation. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true xix. A: Hepatitis B virus is preventable by vaccination. R: Hepatitis B can be transmitted parenterally. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true xx. A: Plasmodium falciparum is the species of Plasmodium producing most serious complications. R: Malaria is caused by bite of female Anopheles mosquito a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true
A 30-year-old previously healthy woman presented to Medicine OPD with malaise, low- grade fever, nausea, vomiting, aversion to food, mild itching since one month. Serum showed elevated levels of AST and ALT and presence of antiHBcIgM. (a) What is the probable clinical diagnosis. (b) Which phase is the patient in. (c) What are the common etiological agents for a similar condition. (d) In the above case scenario, what are the other serological investigations required. (e) How does one get this infection. (f) What is the long-term concern in this infection. (g) How does one prevent this infection. Give details.
Read the following clinical history and answer the following questions A 45 years old diabetic male was hospitalized in ICU isolation ward for the following complaints. High fever for two days, rapidly progressive sore throat, cough, dyspnoea and headache of one day duration. He gave history of returning from a country which was notified for the presence of a pandemic flu like disease. • What is the most probable diagnosis. • What specimen do you collect from the patient • How do you transport it to laboratory • How will you proceed with the specimen in the microbiology lab for the proper lab diagnosis. • What is the role of vaccine in preventing this disease
A 25 year old male presented to the emergency department with history of fever and intense headache for the past 4 days and vomiting since two days. On examination patient has signs of meningitis. Grams stain on the CSF demonstrated gram positive lanceolate displococci
Drug of choice for treatment in this patient is a) Cefuroxime b) Ceftriaxone c) Ceftazidime d) Cefoxitin
The available vaccines are a) Live attenuated b) Killed vaccine c) Cellular component d) Toxoid
This bacterium escapes immune destruction due to a) Inhibition of phagocystosis c) Bile solubility b) Production of cyclic AMP d) Autolysis
What is the probable causative agent for meningitis in this patient a) Streptococcus agalactiae c) Staphylococcus aureus b) Haemophilus influenzae d) Streptococcus pneumoniae
An important virulence factor in this bacterium is a) Fimbria b) Endotoxin c) Capsule d) Flagellum
A 5-year-old boy presented to paediatric OP with fever, sore throat, difficulty in swallowing. He has no records of vaccination O/E cervical lymphadenopathy and white patch seen on the tonsil. (a) What is your clinical diagnosis. (b) Name the causative organism. (c) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition. (d) How do you confirm the diagnosis in the laboratory. (e) How do you manage the child. (f) What are the public health measures you have to take to prevent the spread of infection. (1+1+3+4+3+3)
A young adult male came to skin O.P with complaints of painless indurated ulcer on the penis. He gives history of unprotected sex with multiple partners. • What is your provisional diagnosis. Name the causative agent • Describe in detail the pathogenesis of this disease • How do you confirm the diagnosis in the laboratory • How do you treat the patient • What are the complications of this condition
Define sterilization. Classify methods of sterilization. Describe in detail moist methods below 100˚C, above 100˚C.
Classify hypersensitivity. Describe the pathogenesis of each one of them with examples. Draw diagrams wherever necessary
Describe the mechanism of cell mediated immune response. Add a note on its applications, detection methods, and name the immunodeficiency diseases associated with defect in cell mediated immunity.
A 20-year-old female with history of multiple blood transfusions presents to outpatient department with fever, malaise, nausea vomiting and yellowish discoloration of urine. The blood examination showed elevated bilirubin and liver enzymes and positive for HBs Ag a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Write the mode of transmission c) Mention the serological markers and their significance d) Write the long term complications of the condition. e) Write the laboratory tests used for the diagnosis f) Mention briefly on post exposure prophylaxis.
An adult male aged 26 years was suffering from severe anemia due to iron deficiency. He was given blood transfusions to correct anemia. Two months later, he developed yellowishness of the sclera and also complained of passing high coloured urine. Answer the following: • Name the probable etiologic agents. • What are the other modes of transmission of this agent. • How will you proceed with the laboratory diagnosis. • How will you protect the individual from acquiring this infection
A 10 years old boy developed multiple vesicles over the lips and buccal mucosa scraping taken from the lesion demonstrated presence of multiple giant cells (Tzanck cells) • What is the most probable diagnosis • Discuss the pathogenesis of the above condition in detail • How do you diagnose this infection in laboratory • Name four other viruses belonging to the same family • What are the other clinical manifestation produced by this virus
A 25-year-old migrant labourer was brought to outpatient department with high grade fever, severe myalgia and retro orbital pain. On examination, he had maculopapular rashes over his body. Blood examination showed thrombocytopenia and NS1 antigen positive a) What is the probable diagnosis and name the aetiological agent b) Write the vector transmitting the agent c) Write four differential diagnosis of the condition d) Write briefly the pathogenesis of the disease e) Write two complications of the condition f) How will you diagnose the infection in the lab g) Mention the preventive measures.
A 5-year-old boy was brought to pediatric casualty with irritability, agitation, abnormal behaviour, difficulty in swallowing liquids and fear of water. His mother informed that he had been bitten by a stray dog two months back. No medical help had been sought at that time. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the causative agent c) Describe the pathogenesis of the condition d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis e) Describe the risk categorization and recommended post exposure prophylaxis of this disease
Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction
Laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of Diphtheria
What is Spaulding’s classification. Classify instruments based on that and give examples of disinfectants used for each. Describe in detail any one gaseous high level disinfectant
A 40-year-old male presented to pulmonary medicine outpatient department with history of productive cough of more than 3 weeks duration, evening rise of temperature and loss of weight. Microscopic examination of sputum showed acid fast bacilli. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the etiological agent c) Discuss the pathogenesis of the disease d) Describe the lab diagnosis in detail e) Add a note on the drug resistance seen in this organism f) Name the national programme for this disease
A four-year-old child was brought to paediatric casualty with fever, altered behaviour and difficulty to swallow liquids. Mother gives a history of dog bite two months back and not taking vaccine as per schedule. (a) What is your clinical diagnosis. (b) Name the causative agent. (c) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition. (d) List the samples collected and the methods of antemortem diagnosis of this condition. (e) Name cell culture vaccines for this disease. (f) What is IDRV. Discuss the post exposure vaccination schedule.
Classify Dermatophytes. Describe the laboratory diagnosis.
A 21-year-old female presented with recurrent episodes of seizures, headache and vomiting and vertigo. MRI of the brain showed multiple ring enhancing lesions in the brain parenchyma. The causative agent was thought to be a cestode. (a) What is the probable causative agent. (b) Which is the infective stage of the parasite responsible for the above-mentioned condition. (c) What is the mode of transmission. (d) Name other four cestodes with their definitive hosts. (e) Name two stool concentration methods. (f) How do you treat the patient. (g) How to prevent this infection.
A 45-year-old smoker comes to outpatient department with history of productive cough, evening rise of temperature and loss of weight. Microscopic examination of the sample revealed acid fast bacilli. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis. b) Name the causative agent. c) Write the mode of transmission of the infective agent. d) Discuss the pathogenesis of the disease. e) Describe in detail the laboratory diagnosis of the condition. f) Discuss the drug resistance seen in this organism and the treatment of the resistant forms. g) Name the national programme for this condition.
Autoclave
A 70 year old man was brought to the emergency department with fever, cough, and dyspnoea. Physical examination revealed a dull note on percussion. X-ray chest revealed a patch on the right lung area. The gram stain of sputum sample revealed numerous pus cells and Gram positive lanceolate shaped diplococci. a) What is the clinical diagnosis and what is the probable etiological agent. b) What culture media is used to enable the growth of the organism suspected and how will you confirm the identity of the organism. c) Discuss the virulence factors and pathogenesis of this etiological agent. d) What are the vaccines available for this etiological agent. Discuss.
A 20-year-old woman came to the Medicine OPD with history of fever, fatigue and abdominal discomfort since 4 days. It did not resolve with antipyretics. Samples were collected for the common probable causes of this condition and was confirmed as typhoid fever. (a) What are the common probable causes of the above case scenario. (b) Which is the confirmatory test for typhoid fever. (c) What is the most important instruction to be given for sample collection for the above test. (d) How does one get this infection. (e) Who is a chronic carrier of typhoid. In whom is chronic carriage likely. (f) How to detect chronic carriers. Give details. (g) What is the public health importance of detecting a chronic carrier. (h) Define Multi drug resistant Salmonella Typhi. (i) How to prevent typhoid infection.
Subcutaneous mycosis
Multiple response type questions. Read the statements & mark the answers appropriately
Pathogens causing loose stools with blood and mucus are 1) Shigella species 2) Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli 3) Entamoeba histolytica 4) Balanditium coli a) 1, 2, 3 are correct c) 1, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
Features of paragonimus westermanni infection 1) Consumption of metacercaria 2) Affects the lung 3) A trematode 4) Penetration of skin a) 1, 2, 3 are correct c) 2, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 3 are correct
Pseudomembranous colitis characteristics are 1) Associated with antibiotic use 2) Toxins of clostridioides difficle 3) Treated with intravenous vancomycin 4) Fecal microbiota transplant is a treatment option a) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct c) 1, 2 are correct b) 1, 2, 4 are correct d) 1, 4 are correct
Opportunistic fungal infections include 1) Invasive aspergillosis 2) Cutaneous dermatophytosis 3) Rhino-cerebral mucormycosis 4) Cryptococcus meningitis a) 1, 2, 4 are correct c) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 3, 4 are correct d) 3, 4 are correct
Autoinfection is noted in 1) Trichruis trichuria 2) Stronglyloides steroralis 3) Enterobious vermicularis 4) Taenia solium a) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct c) 2, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3 are correct d) 2, 4 are correct
A 40-year-old diabetic man came to medicine O.P with fever, shortness of breath. His family members also give history of fever and sore throat. His oxygen saturation was low and chest x-ray showed diffuse infiltration (a) What is the most likely clinical diagnosis. (b) Name the two common viral agents for this condition. (c) Pathogenesis of the condition which caused the pandemic in 2020 (d) Name the vaccines developed against it, licensed for use in India and describe in detail any one of them. (e) List the samples collected and the tests available for diagnosis of acute condition. (f) Name one oral drug licensed for use in this condition. (1+2+2+6+3+1) Short essays
Type I hypersensitivity
Type 1 hypersensitivity
A 50-year-old woman, an agriculture worker came with complaints of fever, malaise, headache with yellow discolouration of sclera in eyes for the past 5 days. O/E microalbuminuria. There were floods in her place in the previous week. (a) What is your diagnosis (b) Describe the pathogenesis (c) Lab diagnosis (d) Classify various causes of bloodstream infection with examples.
10-year-old girl presented with migrating joint pain, painless small nodules on the feet, and fever for the past 4 days. O/E murmur was observed on auscultation. ECG showed prolonged PR interval. ESR and CRP were raised. Parents gave a history of repeated sore throat infections earlier. (a) What is your diagnosis (b) Name the causative agent (c) Describe the virulence factors and pathogenesis in detail (d) Describe the lab diagnosis (e) Describe the criteria used for final diagnosis (1+1+5+5+3)
A 12-year-old child complained of high fever (1010C), malaise and abdominal pain since 7 days. A blood culture and the Rapid Typhi-dot test was found positive. a) What is most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the causative agent. c) Mode of transmission of the infective agent d) Pathogenesis of the disease condition e) Write the laboratory diagnosis of the disease f) Mention TWO drugs used in the treatment of the disease g) Write TWO complications of the disease h) Mention the prophylaxis
NACO strategies for HIV diagnosis
Four workers from a construction site were admitted in a primary health centre with watery diarrhoea, fatigue and muscle cramps. On examination, they were dehydrated with tachycardia. The stool samples were collected for examination and appeared like rice water. The bacteria isolated in stool culture was comma shaped and motile. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the causative agent. c) Write the mode of transmission of the infective agent d) Describe the pathogenesis of the condition e) Write briefly on the laboratory diagnosis f) How will you treat the condition g) Write briefly on the prophylaxis
Laboratory diagnosis of syphilis
Laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis
Type I Hypersensitivity reactions.
Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of a patient suspected of having HIV infection.
Describe the etiological agents, clinical types and laboratory diagnosis of dermatophytes.
Classification of Streptococci with examples. Write about the diseases caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Add a note on laboratory diagnosis.
Lymphatic filariasis.
MRSA – mechanism of resistance, detection and treatment of cases and carriers, prevention.
Describe the aetiology, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytosis.
Monoclonal antibody and its application
A 30 year old female was brought to the hospital with complaints of loss of weight and appetite of 3 months duration. On examination, she was jaundiced and hepatomegaly present. she gave a history of blood transfusion in the past. Lab investigation showed she was HBsAg positive. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis. b) What are the different modes of transmission of this agent. c) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of this infection. d) Add a note on the immunoprophylaxis
Quantitative buffy coat examination– principle, applications, advantages and Disadvantages.
Post exposure Prophylaxis for Rabies.
Single response types
The viral causative agent of gastroenteritis, for which an effective vaccine is available is a) Norovirus b) Adenovirus c) Rotavirus d) Astrovirus
Most common cause for vaccine preventable, vector borne encephalitis among children in Asia a) Herpes simplex encephalitis c) Rabies encephalitis b) Dengue encephalitis d) Japanese B encephalitis
A 32 year old was admitted with features of severe dehydration following loose stools, rice water in nature, for the past two days. Hanging drop examination of the stool was positive for darting motility. Name the enrichment medium used to transport the stool sample a) Thioglycollate broth c) Alkaline peptone water b) Selenite F broth d) Amies medium
An example for bile stained eggs in the wet mount of stool specimen a) Enterobius vermicularis b) Hook worm c) Ascaris lumbricoides d) HHymenolepis
Residents from a slum, develop fever on and off followed by jaundice after recent floods. The most probable zoonotic infection is a) Enteric fever c) Enterically transmitted hepatitis b) Leptospirosis d) Yellow fever
What are prions. Name human prion diseases. Discuss in detail any one of them.
Enumerate moist heat methods of sterilization. Write in detail about any one method
Laboratory diagnosis of bacterial meningitis
Describe various virulence factors in bacteria with examples.
Ethylene oxide and plasma sterilization
Enumerate the methods of moist heat sterilization. Write briefly on the principle, application and sterilization control of laboratory autoclave.
Entamoeba histolytica.
Dermatophytes
Write the functions of HICC (Hospital Infection Control Committee). Add a note on antimicrobial stewardship
Describe the pathogenesis and prophylaxis of Varicella Zoster virus infection
Bacterial spore
Antigen presenting cells.
Biomedical waste management
Describe the laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of tetanus
Describe the etiology, specimen collection and laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infection.
Name TWO pathogenic free living amoeba and the infection caused by each of them
Discuss laboratory diagnosis of LRTI.
Discuss the pathogenesis, antemortem lab diagnosis and post exposure prophylaxis of Rabies.
List role of complement in health and disease
Describe the indications and different methods of blood culture. Discuss sample collection for blood culture.
Name four dimorphic fungi.
Two Statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below.
A: Beta lactam antibiotics do not act against Chlamydiae pneumoniae R: Chlamydiae pneumonia lacks a cell wall a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true
A: Acute rheumatic fever is one of the sequelae of sore throat caused by Streptococcus pyogenes R: The patient will require prophylaxis with penicillin to prevent rheumatic heart disease a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true
A: Bacterial meningitis due to Haemophilus influenza, among children is preventable R: A live attenuated vaccine is invluded in the National immunization schedule a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true
A: Influenza viruses are responsible for pandemics over the years R: Antigenic shift is common is these viruses a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true
A: Naegleria fowleri causes secondary amoebic meningo encephalitis R: The free living amoeba enters the central nervous system through the nose and cribriform plate. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true
Discuss the molecular methods available for the diagnosis of tuberculosis.
Enriched media
Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever
Describe principles of genetic engineering and their applications.
Describe the major Hospital Acquired Infections (HAI) types. Add a note on standard precautions
Write the pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Hydatid disease
Lacto Phenol Cotton Blue mount (LPCB mount)
Causative agents of mycetoma
Enumerate the classes of immunoglobulins. Write briefly on structure and properties of IgM
Describe the etiology and pathogenesis of gas gangrene
Define enriched media with two example
Disc diffusion method of antibiotic susceptibility testing
List molecular methods used in laboratory diagnosis of infections. Briefly mention principle of each method. Discuss advantages and disadvantages of each method.
Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria
Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, lab diagnosis and immunization of chicken pox.
Complications of Dengue fever
What is antigenic shift and drift in influenza virus. What are the implications. What are the risk factors for complications following influenza infection
Describe the pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis.
Define Selective media with two examples
Define pandemic. Name any four pandemics. Describe in detail strategies taken for their control.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing methods – types with respective principle, interpretation, purpose of selective reporting.
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis
A 40-year-old previously healthy adult, presented to the medicine outpatient department with malaise, fatigue, low grade fever, nausea and aversion to food. She complains of itching all over the body. She provides history of multiple blood transfusions following a road traffic accident eight months ago. The anti HBc IgM was positive. AST and ALT (Liver enzymes) were elevated a) What is the probable clinical diagnosis b) What is the source of infection in this patient. Name other modes of transmission of this infectious agent. c) Enumerate the serological markers in different phases of this infection, support with appropriate diagrams. d) Write on a note on prevention of this infection
Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of polio.
Name different methods of antimicrobial susceptibility testing
Sporicidal disinfectants
Describe various modes of biomedical waste disposal with examples. Add a note on treatment of waste disposal
Define food poisoning, Enumerate the organism causing food poisoning. Describe the lab diagnosis
Enumerate the various classes of immunoglobulins. Write briefly on the structure and properties of IgG
Cysticercus cellulosae in man.
Germ tube test
Write briefly on the pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Ascariasis.
Describe the etiology, clinical types and laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytosis
Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)
Transport media with TWO examples
Discuss applications of monoclonal antibodies.
Name four organisms causing congenital infections and describe in detail any one of them.
Pathogenesis of Rabies
Explain the reasons that helped successful eradication of smallpox.
Classify Herpes viruses. Discuss the clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Epstein Barr virus infection.
Clinical significance of IgM
List FOUR clinically important anaerobes. List samples to be collected. Describe the sample collection process.
Discuss mechanisms of innate immunity.
35-year-old male came to the surgery out-patient department with vague abdominal discomfort and intermittent pain in the right upper quadrant for the past four months. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and hepatomegaly. Ultrasound examination of the abdomen revealed a large, well defined cystic lesion in the right lobe of the liver. The patient has no significant history in the past. He has a fondness for stray dogs in his neighborhood. a) What is the probable diagnosis. b) Describe the life cycle of the etiological agent and name the intermediate host in the lifecycle c) Name two organs other than liver where these cysts can occur d) Describe the treatment options for this patient e) Add a note on prevention of this infection
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis – etiology, mode of transmission, laboratory diagnosis
Hapten
Anaerobic culture methods
Classify nematodes, Enumerate intestinal nematodes. Add a note on life cycle, pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Hookworm.
Difference between bacterial and amoebic dysentery. Add a note on morphology and lab diagnosis of E.histolytica
Outline steps in biomedical waste management.
Gamma interferon.
Hepatitis B vaccine
Enumerate various methods of moist heat sterilisation. Add a note on laboratory Autoclave.
Pathogenesis, clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis
Enumerate FOUR sporicidal disinfectants
Role of complement in immune response
Free living amoebae
Describe the etiopathogenesis and lab diagnosis of kala- azar.
Mucocutaneous candidiasis
Cryptococcal meningitis – risk factors, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis
Halophilic Vibrios
Primary Amoebic meningoencephalitis – discuss etiology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis.
List antigen presenting cells and discuss their role in immune response.
Lab diagnosis of toxoplasmosis
A 25 year old presented to the emergency with breathlessness, cough and fever since five days.The CT of the chest revealed bilateral ground glass opacities. A working diagnosis of viral pneumonia was made and samples were sent for confirmation of the etiological agent. a) What are the samples to be collected and tests performed for confirming the diagnosis of COVID-19 (1+2) b) What are the precautions to be taken for sample collection. Add a note on transmission based precautions in the community
Discuss laboratory diagnosis of dimorphic fungi.
Transformation
Mechanisms of autoimmune disease
Enumerate viruses causing gastroenteritis. Add a note on Morphology, Pathogenesis ,Lab diagnosis and prevention of rotavirus infection
What are the differences between Hepatitis A virus and Hepatitis B virus. Describe various markers of HBV in detail and their applications
Define Health Care Associated Infection. Mention the various types of HAI and their preventive measures.
Draw and label Hook Worm Ova.
Rhinosporidiosis
Classify immunity. Add a note on passive immunity.
Laboratory diagnosis of pneumococcal meningitis
Name any TWO live vaccines
Name TWO bacteria causing gas gangrene
What are the laboratory tests available to detect Hepatitis C in a suspected patient
Lymphogranuloma venereum.
List risk factors that can lead to disseminated herpes infection and the common manifestations seen.
Cysticercus cellulosae
Define Pandemic and give two examples
Mode of transmission, clinical presentation and laboratory diagnosis of Nipah virus infection
List four parasitic infections especially seen in immunocompromised patients.
Draw and label Ancyclostoma ova
Etiology and laboratory diagnosis of Cholera.
Name four bacteria causing gas gangrene.
Natural passive immunity
Artificial passive immunity with two examples
Structure of Gram negative cell wall with diagram.
PCR – Principle
Write the applications of ELISA test
Write the serological markers of Hepatitis B virus infection and their significance.
Polio vaccines and current vaccination schedule for polio
Plasmids
Nongonococcal urethritis
Laboratory tests for detecting infections by dimorphic fungi
Trichomonas vaginalis.
Name TWO agents causing Mycetoma
Tzanck smear.
Differentiate between antigenic shift and antigenic drift
Name FOUR antigen- antibody reactions
Shigellosis.
Laboratory diagnosis of invasive candidiasis.
Lab diagnosis of filariasis caused by Brugia malayi
A 35 year male presented with cough, fever since the past three weeks and weight loss. Blood counts were normal with raised ESR. Chest x-ray showed right upper lobe consolidation. a) What is the clinical diagnosis and probable causative agent. b) Describe the laboratory diagnosis with special emphasis on rapid diagnostic methods.
Describe collection of specimens in a case of suspected leprosy.
Non – Gonococcal Urethritis (NGU)
Define significant bacteriuria. Two examples of bacteria causing UTI
Principle of presumptive coliform testing and its interpretation.
List FOUR gaseous sterilants and write two uses of any one of them
Opportunistic viral infections in AIDS patients.
Giardia lamblia
Laboratory diagnosis of Giardiasis.
Name TWO cell wall acting antibiotics
Discuss the beneficial effects of normal flora.
A CSF sample was received in microbiology lab without requisition form. How will you manage this situation
Respiratory Syncytial virus.
Name TWO complications of varicella zoster virus infection
Vaccine against Varicella zoster virus.
Name two horizontal gene transfer method in bacteria
Antibiotic associated diarrhea.
Importance of biofilms in management of infections.
Neurocysticercosis
List four parasites causing lesions in the brain. Describe the life cycle of any one of them.
Enumerate four infections produced by streptococcus pyogenes and the virulence factors.
Cutaneous anthrax
Acid fast staining
Draw the structure of HIV and label. Add a note on its transmission
Enumerate FOUR fungi causing systemic mycosis. Write briefly the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them.
Give two examples of antifungal drugs.
Laboratory diagnosis of kala azar
Segregation of biomedical waste.
Etiology, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Mycetoma
Name TWO modes of transmission of infection with examples for each
IgG (Immunoglobulin G)
Secondary immune response
Sporotrichosis.
Hepatitis B surface antigen
CD4+ T lymphocytes
List, in tabular form, the CSF parameters, in normal CSF and in pyogenic, viral and tubercular meningitis.
List the various roles of Cell mediated immunity with specific examples.
Name four markers of Hepatitis-B infection.
List four bacterial zoonotic infections. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia.
Classify non – tuberculous mycobacteria giving examples
Add a note on lab diagnosis of Pernicious Malaria.
Lab diagnosis of Ring worm infection
Larva migrans
Define intermediate host with an example.
Define intermediate host. Give two examples
Enumerate four fungi causing systemic mycosis. Add a note on laboratory diagnosis of Histoplasmosis.
A CSF sample for culture was refrigerated and sent to microbiology laboratory. Write the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken
Mention contributions of Robert Koch
Write TWO mechanisms of autoimmunity
List sources of healthcare-associated infections and respective preventive measures
Laboratory diagnosis of mycetoma
Classification of fungus with examples.
Rapid diagnostic methods of Malaria
A swab is collected from an abscess in the ward. The details of the patient on the sample container do not match those on the request form. Discuss the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken.
Koch’s postulates
How will you instruct a patient with suspected lower respiratory tract infection to collect a sputum sample.
Healthcare associated infections – definition, major types, four micro-organisms transmitted through contact.
Pulse polio programme.
A biopsy was taken from a patient, clinically diagnosed with acid peptic disease, during endoscopy. a) Name the site from where the biopsy most likely was taken. b) Name the etiological agent and list two mechanisms by which the agent can produce this condition. c) Describe a rapid test done on the biopsy material for the above etiological agent.
A CSF sample, collected in the ward by lumbar puncture, does not reach the laboratory for processing for bacterial culture. Discuss the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken.
Widal test
Laboratory diagnosis of leptospirosis
NACO strategies for HIV testing
Write FOUR mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance in bacteria with examples.
Rota virus vaccine.
Visceral larva migrans
Name four mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance in bacteria.
Name any TWO skin and soft tissue infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Sterilization controls used in autoclave
Which is the high-risk group for acquiring fulminant hepatitis with Hepatitis E virus.
Name TWO oncogenic DNA viruses
Name the selective medium for Nessieria gonorrhea.
List TWO common viral causes of community acquired pneumonia.
Name two bacterial zoonotic diseases.
Bacterial flagella
How is Toxoplasma gondii transmitted. Add a note on the laboratory diagnosis of congenital Toxoplasma infection.
What is the mode of transmission of visceral leishmaniasis.
Name four Arbo viruses
Prevention of transmission of HIV from mother to child.
List methods of transmission of human anthrax.
Lyme disease
Laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria
Name 4 parasitic infections affecting the blood
Name TWO tests used for diagnosis of HIV infection in window period.
Name four parasites causing anemia.
Draw neat labeled diagram of microfilaria bancrofti
Name TWO viruses that can cause Hepatocellular carcinoma.
Name ONE parasite affecting lungs
Which organism is identified by Nagler’s reaction.
What is the mechanism of action of the virulence factor in diphtheria.
Name two fungi that cause subcutaneous mycosis.
Modes of transmission and laboratory diagnosis of Monkey pox (M Pox)
Which is the microbe causing lymphatic filariasis.
Rabies vaccines.
Which arm of immune response plays an important role in controlling nocardiosis.
Name two methods to test antibiotic susceptibility.
Name two rapid tests used for diagnosis of malaria.
A sample was received in laboratory for blood culture from medical ward and it was found to be wrongly labelled. What measures will you adopt in such a situation.
Name four contributions of Louis Pasteur
Name TWO fungi causing Keratomycosis
Name TWO hemorrhagic fever causing viruses prevalent in Kerala.
Name TWO fungi causing otomycosis
Name two non –sporing, anaerobic gram negative bacilli.
Schedule and dosage of DPT vaccine.
Write the mode of transmission of Japanese encephalitis.
List FOUR oncogenic viruses.
What is the stage in the life cycle of trypanosomes infective to Man.
A CSF sample did not reach the laboratory. Discuss the impact on patient care and how this can be prevented.
Enumerate two bacteria causing neonatal meningitis.
Name two immunosuppressive agents.
Name any two viruses causing diarrhoeal disease
Name the antibody giving local mucosal immunity.
Name TWO human prion diseases
Name one rapid laboratory test to diagnose Candida albicans.
Name TWO etiological agents of non-gonococcal urethritis
Name two viruses which cause microcephaly.
List two common bacterial causes of healthcare acquired pneumonia.
Satellitism.
What are dimorphic fungi.
Name the most common yeast causing meningitis in a HIV positive patient. Name a special stain used for its detection in CSF sample. Draw a neat labelled diagram of its appearance under the microscope using the special stain. Name one rapid test to identify this yeast in the CSF sample.
List two most common bacterial causes of STDs.
Name two viral disease transmitted by ticks.
Name any two discoveries of Robert Koch
Name TWO transport media.
Name two antigen presenting cells.
Causative agent of pityriasis versicolor
Name TWO viral vaccines that can prevent carcinoma.
Name TWO etiological agents causing opportunistic mycoses
Name two zoonotic diseases.
What is the pathognomonic clinical feature of measles.
Write two identifying features of Cryptococcus neoformans.
Clinical importance of plasmids in bacteria with two examples.
Hepatitis C virus- modes of transmission and laboratory diagnosis.
List methods of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii.
Name two hepatitis viruses that are transmitted by Faeco-oral route.
Biological control for autoclave
Name TWO mechanisms of auto-immunity.
Name two antibiotics inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis
Name two bacterial commensals found in the gastrointestinal tract.
Name TWO zoonotic infections
Which viral disease is acquired from camel.
List modes of transmission of molluscum contagiosum.
Name two causative agents of keratomycosis.
List FOUR clinical clues associated with anaerobic infections.
Nipah virus – modes of transmission and outbreak prevention.
Name two viral congenital infections.
Name any two fungi causing Mycetoma foot.
Name TWO antiseptics.
Name TWO biologic agents used as bioweapons
Define acute phase reactants. Give one example.
Name TWO bacterial agents causing atypical pneumonia.
Which parasite cause calcified cysts in muscles.
Name two viruses which can cause latent infections.
A CSF sample was received in microbiology lab for culture. The label in the specimen container was not matching with the specimen referral form. How will you manage the situation.
What is the role of memory cells in immune response.
Name four viruses causing hemorrhagic fever.
Name two protozoa that commonly cause opportunistic infection in AIDS.
Name any two parasites causing anaemia
Name the infective form of Entamoeba histolytica.
A blood sample received from pediatric ward for culture was found missing in the laboratory. What measures will you adopt to handle such a situation.
Causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum
Give an example of artificial passive immunity.
Name the causative agent and vector of plague
Which fungal disease is spread by pigeon droppings.
Define mycetoma and give examples of two causative agents.
List four causes of nongonococcal urethritis.
What is mucosal immunity.
Name two fungi causing sub cutaneous mycosis
Name two non-bile stained eggs.
Name any two superantigens.
What is an adjuvant. Give one example.
Name two bacteria with capsule.
Name TWO parasites causing cutaneous larva migrans
What does “N95” refer to in a respirator.
Name TWO bacteria causing neonatal meningitis
Name the organism which causes acute osteomyelitis.
Name the reservoir of infection and method of transmission of Penicillium marneffei infection.
Name one free living amoebae and the infection caused by it.
Name the disinfectant (with %) to be used for a large spill.
Name two clinical types of dermatophytoses.
Name two parasitic disease where man acts as intermediate host.
Name TWO complications of malignant malaria.
Name the etiologic agent of Hydatid disease and mention the definitive and intermediate host
Name TWO parasites causing lung infection
Name two airborne infections.
Name TWO viruses causing congenital infections
Name two tissue nematodes.
Sample, from the respiratory tract, received for Ziehl Neelsen stain is found to be mainly saliva. Discuss the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken.
Name two narrow spectrum antibiotics.
If the urine sample, for bacterial culture, collected by the patient is submitted to the laboratory the next day, is it acceptable. Discuss the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken.
Name two dimorphic fungi.
Name two vaccines used that prevent cancers.
Name TWO halophilic vibrios.
Name two complications of Enteric fever