Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of SurgeryMicrobiology Previous Year Question Papers

Ethylene oxide sterilization.

Type I hypersensitivity.

Cryptococcosis

Type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Enumerate the viruses causing respiratory tract infections. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of viral Influenza

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay.

Mechanisms of Innate Immunity

Molluscum contagiosum.

Lab diagnosis of urinary tract infection

Laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria

Neurocysticercosis.

Antibiotic associated diarrhoea.

Laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B.

Laboratory diagnosis of amoebic dysentery.

Prophylaxis and laboratory diagnosis of COVID-19

Describe principle, types and applications of ELISA.

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Cholera

ELISA

Dimorphic fungi.

Hydatid cyst.

Anaerobic culture media

Write a note on Kyasanur Forest disease.

Describe the morphology and life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides

Aseptic meningitis

Monoclonal antibodies

Bacterial conjugation and its implications

Write a note on Dengue.

Laboratory diagnosis of brucellosis

Write a note on Japanese encephalitis.

Describe passive immunity.

Autoclave.

Enrichment media

Infections caused by Candida albicans and its laboratory diagnosis.

Rhinosporidiosis.

Write about lab diagnosis of hepatitis B virus

Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of aspergilloma

Gram negative cell wall.

Antibiotic susceptibility testing methods for bacteria

Laboratory diagnosis of Malaria

Bacterial spore and methods of killing the spores.

Write briefly about clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of Tubercular meningitis

Draw a neat labelled diagram of a bacterial cell and write one function of each component

1. Laboratory diagnosis of Bacterial vaginosis.

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Japanese encephalitis

Anaphylaxis

Describe tuberculin type of delayed hypersensitivity.

Auto immunity.

Write a note on Campylobacter jejuni.

Etiology and laboratory diagnosis of Lympho Granuloma Venereum (LGV)

Immune prophylaxis of polio

List the differences between Taenia solium and Taenia saginata

Cryptococcal meningitis

Mechanisms of autoimmune disease

ELISA – Principles, types and applications

2. Pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of trichomoniasis

Clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis

Food poisoning.

Pathogenesis & prevention of tetanus.

IgG

T.S.I media

Amoebiasis.

Lab diagnosis of Dermatophytosis.

Write about the lab diagnosis of mycetoma

Viral diarrhoea.

Describe the life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Hydatid cyst disease

Mention different types of graft rejection and suggest measures to prevent rejection

Define cytokines and discuss their role in immune response

Mention the various disinfectants used in hospitals and their uses

2. Laboratory diagnosis and treatment of Lympho-Granuloma Venereum (LGV).

Laboratory diagnostic strategy of pulmonary tuberculosis as per National Tuberculosis Elimination Program

Prophylaxis against Tetanus.

Describe classes of major histocompatibility complex and their role in Immunity.

Laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of Japanese B Encephalitis.

Describe the structure and functions of IgM antibody.

Etiology, pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Japanese B encephalitis

Write a note on Cryptococcosis.

Discuss lab diagnosis of malaria

Modes of transmission of infections

Delayed type hypersensitivity

Write a note on Candidiasis.

3. Laboratory diagnosis of UTI

Non-gonococcal urethritis

Write a note on Aspergillosis.

Gaseous disinfectants.

Cryptococcus neoformans.

Write short notes on widal test

Describe the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides

MDR – tuberculosis.

a. Mention the differences between innate and acquired immunity

Give an outline of laboratory diagnosis of bacterial infections

Primary amoebic encephalitis

Define immunity. Describe active immunity in detail

3. Discuss Laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections.

a. A lady aged 28 years presented with recurrent multiple painful vesicular lesions of external genitalia. Giemsa-stained smear of the base of the lesions showed multinucleated giant cells with faceted nuclei. Describe pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of this condition

Bacillary dysentry.

A child presents with vesicular rashes. Rashes are bilateral, diffuse and centripetal in distribution. Fever appears with each crop of eruption. What is the probable clinical diagnosis & discuss the prevention of this infection

Chemical disinfectants.

Describe major histocompatibility complex.

Standard precautions in health care delivery

Write about Rota virus.

Enumerate dimorphic fungi and write the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them

Dimorphic fungi causing infections

An Intravenous drug abuser develops fever with chills, myalgia, cardiac murmur. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococci aureus was isolated from Blood culture. Describe pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of this condition

Write about antigenic variations in influenza virus.

Gonococcal uretheritis

Hand hygiene

Write about Human papilloma virus.

Types and segregation of Biomedical waste.

Toxins and virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus.

Life cycle and lab diagnosis of Ascaris Lumbricoides.

Poliomyelitis

Laboratory diagnosis of COVID-19 infection

Laboratory diagnosis of dermatophytosis

Uses of detecting IgM antibodies.

A boy has intermittent fever with chills and rigors since 5 days. His spleen is enlarged and palpable. Peripheral blood smear showed ring-shaped structures inside the RBCs. Describe the life cycle and outline the laboratory diagnosis

Herd immunity.

Ventilator Associated Pneumonia

Discuss pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Dengue fever.

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Leptospirosis

IgM.

Differentiate eumycotic mycetoma from actinomycotic mycetoma

Laboratory diagnosis of dengue haemorrhagic fever.

Robert Koch.

Clinical manifestation and laboratory diagnosis of Polio.

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Covid-19 disease

Clinical manifestations of Coxsackie viruses

Laboratory diagnosis of Mucormycosis

Infectious mononucleosis.

Laboratory diagnosis of Falciparum malaria

Laboratory diagnosis of lymphatic filariasis

Clinical manifestations of Herpes simplex.

Life cycle of Paragonimuswestermani and its laboratory diagnosis

Clinical manifestations of Measles

Mechanisms and pathogenesis anaphylaxis.

Give an outline of laboratory diagnosis of fungal infections.

Laboratory diagnosis of gonococci.

Differences between active and passive immunity

Aspergillosis.

Paragonimus westermani.

Write the clinical feature and lab diagnosis of dengue infection

Describe the laboratory diagnosis of candidiasis

An elderly man has painful erythematous mucosa of oral cavity and tongue, covered with white patches. Gram positive budding yeast-like organism was demonstrated in the swab taken from patch. Describe etiopathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of this condition

Discuss the mechanisms of drug resistance among bacteria with examples

Adult immunization.

Laboratory diagnosis of bacillary dysentery

Laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary TB.

Clinical features, complications and laboratory diagnosis of Dengue

Laboratory diagnosis of Shigellosis

Write the laboratory diagnosis of gonococcal infection.

Sequence of events that occur following entry of quadri-nucleate cyst of Entamoeba histolytica into the gut

Diagnosis, treatment and prophylaxis of Gas Gangrene

Mucormyosis.

Determinants of antigenicity

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of rabies

Describe the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infection

Classify protozoan infections with examples

b. Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis E infection.

Pathogenicity of HIV.

Laboratory diagnosis of pertussis

Mention the causative agents and discuss the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections

Bacillary dysentry-causes and lab diagnosis.

Treatment and prophylaxis of pulmonary tuberculosis

Histoplasmosis.

Morphology of influenza virus

What is bacterial growth curve? Give details about factors affecting growth

Clinical features and life cycle of Toxoplasmosis.

Write about the clinical features and lab diagnoses of COVID infection

Dengue infections - epidemiology and laboratory diagnosis

Genetic mechanisms of drug resistance

b. Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis A

Write briefly on Sporotrichosis

Transduction.

Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis.

Prophylaxis of Poliomyelitis.

b. Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hydatid cyst disease

Precipitation reactions.

Imvic reactions

Describe the pathogenesis and the laboratory diagnosis of lepromatous leprosy.

Describe the morphology of bacteria with labelled diagram.

Mechanism of bacterial drug resistance.

Life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis.

Pathogenicity of Neisseria meningitides

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis

Mechanisms of viral oncogenesis

List any four organisms associated with causing Pyrexia of Unknown Origin (PUO). Describe collection of blood specimen for laboratory diagnosis of PUO

Discuss the preventive measures of surgical site infection.

Acid peptic disease – Causative organisms, pathogenesis and diagnosis

Superficial mycosis

Clinical features and lab diagnosis of brucellosis

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of dengue

Laboratory diagnosis of vivax malaria

Nosocomial infection.

Ascaris lumbricoides.

Discuss the clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of sporotrichosis.

Classify Streptococci and add a note on ASO test

Draw a neat labelled diagram of HIV virus.

Cultivation of viruses

National immunization schedule.

Describe the methods of safe disposal of biomedical waste

Streptococcus pneumonia.

c. Mycetoma

Delayed type hypersensitivity reaction

Bacterial vaginosis

Opportunistic infections in HIV patients

Laboratory diagnosis and prevention of mucormycosis.

c. Risk factors and prevention of CAUTI

ASLO test (Anti Streptolysin O test)

Diarrheagenic Escherichia coli

An adult male complains of passing loose watery stools and vomiting since one day. On examination, patient is dehydrated. a. What is the presumptive clinical diagnosis? b. Enumerate viral and bacterial causes of diarrheoa c. Laboratory diagnosis of cholera

Laboratory diagnosis of Zygomycosis

Write a note on Chagas disease

Describe the laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis –B infection

Enumerate the oncogenic viruses. Discuss the mechanism of viral oncogenesis

Laboratory diagnosis of Mycetoma

A middle-aged man presents with hypopigmented patches on his both forearms. On examination the lesions were non-scaly and had reduced sensations. Describe laboratory diagnosis of this condition

Write a note on hydatid cyst.

Chancroid

Write a note on extra intestinal Amoebiasis.

Gram stain and its uses.

Gonorrhea

Measles virus.

Uses of dark ground microscope and note on maintenance of microscope.

Write about sample collection and laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis

Complications of plasmodium falciparum infection.

What are interferons, mode of action and use

Discuss the antigenic variations in Influenza

Complement deficiency disorders.

d. Mucor mycosis

Etiopathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of gas gangrene

Biological functions of complement.

Define opportunistic infection and describe predisposing factors involved in opportunistic disease.

d. Oncogenic viruses

Active immunity.

Drug resistance in bacteria

Describe the differences between resistance acquired by mutation and transferrable drug resistance

Bacterial toxins

Laboratory diagnosis of Gas gangrene.

Write a note on Clostridium perfringens.

Enumerate liver flukes.

Describe the prophylaxis of rabies

Intestinal Taeniasis

Antigen.

Koch’s postulates

Nosocomial infections

Laboratory diagnosis of gonorrhea

Prevention of Rabies.

Slow viral diseases.

What is Cytopathic effect? Mention different types of Cytopathic effect with suitable examples

Laboratory diagnosis of Leptospirosis.

Sexually transmitted bacterial infections.

Blood culture.

Write a note on typhus fever.

Write about coccidioidomycosis.

Define and classify viral inclusion bodies with examples

Write about Histoplasmosis.

Lab diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.

Biomedical waste

Dermatophytes.

Lab diagnosis of corona virus.

Cysticercosis.

Describe the laboratory diagnosis of Rabies

Scrub typhus.

Mycoplasma pmeumoniae.

Laboratory diagnosis of meningitis

Laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections.

Enumerate human diseases caused by Chlamydia.

Name three soil transmitted helminthes

Name three DNA viruses

Otomycosis.

Name three culture media used for fungi

Name three cestodes.

Name three gram positive bacilli.

Name three gram negative bacilli

Name three bacterial vaccines.

Transport media

Name three viral vaccines.

Plasmid

Laboratory diagnosis of amoebic liver abscess

Draw a neat labelled diagram of hydatid cyst

Free living Amoebae.

Laboratory diagnosis of kala azar

Name three vaccines

Name three agents causing Mycetoma.

Significant bacteriuria

Tzanck smear

Bacteriophage.

Widal test

Name three bacterial causes of food poisoning

Giardiasis.

Draw a neat, labelled diagram of Trichomonas vaginalis

Name three selective media.

Name three live attenuated vaccines.

Life cycle of Enterobius vermicularis.

Name three dimorphic fungi

Bacterial capsule.

Transposons.

Complications of falciparum malaria

Cysticercus cellulosae.

Congenital Rubella Syndrome.

Enumerate dimorphic fungi.

Antigenic drift and Antigenic shift.

Laboratory diagnosis of cholera

Name three bacteria causing wound infections

NIH swab.

Name three bacteria causing meningitis.

Herpes simplex virus

Name three uses of hot air oven

Respiratory syncytial virus

Methicillin Resistance Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

Laboratory diagnosis of Neuro cysticercosis

Enumerate the causative agents of neonatal meningitis

List three functions of complement

Hot air oven – Principle and application

Enumerate three Oncogenic viruses

Enumerate three bacteria causing meningitis

Modified Jones criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever.

Transduction and its implications

Mention the markers for acute hepatitis B infection

Enumerate three bacterial agents of acute pyogenic meningitis

Modes of transmission of hepatitis B infection

Describe the reasons for epidemics and pandemics of influenza

Morphological classification of fungi with examples

Pathogenesis of shigellosis

Name three viruses producing inclusion bodies

Prion diseases

Mention three agglutination tests

Name three differences between exotoxin and endotoxin

Mention the clinical types of plague

RPR test for syphilis

Principle and uses of Widal test.

Ethylene oxide sterilisation (ETO)

Define transport media and mention its uses

Expand the following with respect to tuberculosis: a) CBNAAT b) MGIT c) LPA

Name three live vaccine and three killed vaccines

Lesions caused by HSV 2.

Diagnosis of neurocysticercosis

Prophylaxis of enteric fever.

Mention three measures to prevent health care associated infection

Mention three complications caused by Zika virus during pregnancy

What are the risk categories of Spaulding classification and the definitions for each category?

Major Histocompatibility Complex

Mention the clinical manifestations of polio

Germ tube test

Define Transport Media. Give two examples of transport media.

Selective media

Enumerate methods of Antimicrobial Susceptibility test.

Any three contributions of Louis Pasteur.

Name three parasites causing anaemia

Name three non motile bacteria

Stool concentration techniques.

Mention three stool concentration techniques

Recombinant vaccine.

Chemiluminescence assay (CLIA)

DEC provocation test

Adjuvants.

Nipah virus

Draw a labelled diagram of immunoglobulin M (IgM)

What is Prion disease? Mention three Prion diseases?

Morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Name three sexually transmitted infections

Name three infections produced by Staphylococcus aureus.

How will you demonstrate capsule?

Enumerate three bacteria causing diarrhoea.

Write about leptospirosis.

Mention three Oncogenic viruses and the malignant conditions caused by them

Acanthamoeba

Hib Vaccine

Lab diagnosis of intestinal amoebiasis

Differentiate primary and secondary immune response

Mention three health care associated infections

Sequential steps to be followed after a needle stick injury

Naegleria fowleri

Clinical significance of bacterial capsule. Any two methods of detection of capsule.

Write any three applications of PCR.

Mention three Asexual spores of fungi

Name three precipitation tests

Sabouraud’s media.

Katayama fever.

Name three RNA viruses

Presumptive coliform count.

What is Larva migrans? Give example

IgE antibodies.

Travellers diarrhoea

Labelled diagram of IgM.

Infective and diagnostic forms of Paragonimiasis

Name three bacteria causing infective endocarditis

Mention three Arboviruses transmitted by mosquitoes

Name common infections caused by Aspergillus Spp

Mention three contributions of Louis pasteur.

What is occult filariasis?

Mention three differences between Taenia saginata and Taenia solium.

Describe microscopic features of Aspergillus spp and draw a neat labelled diagram.

Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Laboratory diagnosis of Hydatid disease

Leishmania tropica complex

Loeffler’s syndrome

Lab diagnosis of tinea infections

Name the major criteria of modified Jone’s criteria

Enumerate protozoans causing diarrhea in AIDS.

Mention three pulmonary parasites infecting man

Name three clinical manifestations of Aspergillosis

Cryptosporidium parvum

Indole test

Post Exposure Prophylaxis for HIV infection.

Define Enriched media. Give two examples of Enriched media.

Mycotoxins

Classification of Shigella

Name three bile stained ova in stool.

Draw and label the morphological forms of Entamoeba histolytica in wet mount examination faeces.

Name three dermatophytes.

Describe the morphology of eggs of trichuris

Class II human leucocytic antigens.

Mention three sepsis markers

Chronic muco-cutaneous candidiasis

HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigens) typing methods.

Morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis

Reynauld Braude phenomenon

Enumerate three bacteria causing zoonosis

Name three opportunistic sporozoa that cause diarrhea

Laboratory diagnosis of Giardiasis.

What is selective media and give two examples?

Laboratory diagnosis of Gonococcal Urethritis.

Write a note on Bacillus cereus food poisoning.

Mention three deep Mycotic conditions and their causative agents

Viral hemagglutination

List three vectors and the parasites transmitted to man.

Draw neat labeled diagram of Aspergillus niger

Draw a labelled diagram of the diagnostic form of visceral leishmaniasis found in bone marrow smears

Mention three viruses casing encephalitis

Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba keratitis

Continuous cell lines

Name three bacteria causing sexually transmitted infections.

IgM antibody

Prophylaxis against swine flu.

Methods of HLA typing.

Enumerate three functions of complement.

Flotation method for stool examination.

Name three causes of dysentery

Draw a neat labelled diagram of fertilized ovum of Ascaris lumbricoides

Molecular mimicry

Risk factors for Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

Name three viruses causing gastroenteritis

Laboratory diagnosis of lymphogranuloma venereum

Exotoxins and Endotoxins

Name three non-albicans species of Candida

Mention three immunodeficiency diseases.

Classify immunity.

Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli

Etiology and laboratory diagnosis of Vincent’s angina

Write about tropical pulmonary Eosinophilia.

Explain N.I.H swab with a diagram

Preventive measures of sexually transmitted diseases

Rhinocerebral mucormycosis

Write about Trichomoniasis.

Name three solid transmitted Helminths.

Name three hospital acquired infections.

Name three anaerobes

Define inclusion bodies with examples of two intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies.

National Institute of Health Swab.

Draw a labelled diagram of ovum of Ascaris lumbricoides

Laboratory diagnosis of Leprosy

Mention the vectors of the following diseases a) Dengue b) Kyasanur Forest Disease c) Scrub typhus

Mention three extra intestinal manifestations of amoebiasis

Describe Weil-Felix test.

Name three disinfectants used in hospitals.

List three Complications of falciparum malaria

Name three blood borne viral infections

Immune prophylaxis of Tetanus.

Counselling of a health care worker who has sustained a needle stick injury

Lepromin test

A 46 year old man from Africa came to the OPD with abdominal pain, Hematuria and Dysuria. Urine culture showed no growth. Urine wet mount examination revealed oval non operculated eggs with terminal spine a) What is the etiological diagnosis? b) What is the definitive host and intermediate host?

Enumerate parasitic zoonoses.

Name the complications of COVID infection List three parasites affecting the brain.

List three causative agents of discharge per vagina

Name six bacteria causing diabetic foot infection

Name three inclusion bodies.

Laboratory diagnosis of dengue fever

Mention clinical types of human anthrax

Viral vaccines in common use

Name three tests for syphilis.

Define inclusion bodies and name three inclusion bodies.

Modes of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus.

Name three arboviruses.

Dengue shock syndrome.

Name three bile stained Ova.

Describe the immunoprophylaxis for COVID – 19

Selective culture media.

Piedra

Graft versus host reaction

Prophylaxis of Japanese Encephalitis

Discuss pathogenesis of pulmonary plague

Name three organisms causing nongonococcal urethritis

Name three autoimmune diseases

Name three bacteria causing food poisoning.

Type and schedule of Hepatitis B vaccine

Mention three dermatophytes.

Pasteurization.

Vincent’s angina.

Enrichment media with examples

Laboratory diagnosis of Trichomoniasis

Name any four opportunistic infections in HIV

Clinical types of human Plague

Pathogenesis of Shigella

Etiopathogenesis of Actinomycosis

Enumerate three viral haemorrhagic fevers

Pneumocystis jirovecii

Name the different classes of immunoglobulins

Name three culture media

Structure of IgA.

Name three uses of mice.

Slide culture method

Name three parasites causing CNS infections.

Cartridge based nucleic acid amplification test for Tuberculosis (CB-NAAT).

Name three atypical mycobacteria causing skin lesions

Rapid diagnostic tests for Tuberculosis.

List the suppurative and non suppurative complications of Streptococcus pyogenes

Management of needle stick injury.

Malignant pustule

CRP (C-Reactive Protein)

Classification of streptococci

What are sequestered antigens? Give examples

Write the three common microbial agents causing Anaemia.

Describe DPT vaccine and dosage schedules.

Bacterial conjugation

A 25 year old female came to the OPD with vaginal itching. On examination there was a white creamy discharge. The Gram’s stain revealed gram positive budding yeast cells a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) What is the specimen to be collected? c) What are the common species of this yeast

What are diploid cell lines? Give two examples

Enlist six opportunistic fungal agents.

Lab diagnosis of skin lesions caused by staphylococcus

Name common infections caused by nonsporing anaerobes

Draw a neat labelled diagram of Enterobiasis vermicularis.

Write the components of standard precautions in health care delivery

Name three oncogenic viruses

Enumerate dermatophyte infections.

Name three immunodeficiency diseases.

Anti Streptolysin O (ASO) test

Three examples for protozoa causing infection in man.

Laboratory diagnosis of Chagas’ Disease

Name three agglutination tests.

Name three trematodes

Draw and label the egg of Ascaris lumbricoides.

Name four viruses that are transmitted from mother to baby

Diphtheria vaccine.

Name the hosts involved in life cycle of dracunculiasis

Vaccination against Tetanus.

Name viruses causing skin rashes

Mention the three components of standard precautions in health care delivery.

Describe the ethical considerations while testing for HIV

Give three examples of transport media

List differences between active immunity and passive Immunity

Name three uses of ELISA

Name three agents causing bioterrorism

Bacterial nutrition

Clinical manifestations of Strongyloidiasis

What is viral interference? Give one example of a virus which is diagnosed by viral interference

Write about cysticercosis.

Three mechanisms of innate immunity.

Name three blood flukes.

Name three uses of suckling mice.

Draw and label the embryonated egg and mark different routes of administration of viruses.

Name three flaviviruses

Name three organ specific autoimmune diseases.

L-forms

Name three motile bacilli

Oxidase test.

Classical and EL TOR Vibrio

Epstein-Barr virus

Draw a neat labelled diagram of influenza virus

Name three parasites which infect man through feco-oral route.

Name three acid fact bacteria.

Write the uses of autoclave

Name three parasites causing lung infections.

Name three bacteria causing UTI.

Name three respiratory viruses

Clostridium tetani

Draw a labelled diagram of Giardia cyst.

Types of interferon.

Name three viral fevers transmitted by mosquitoes

Hydatid sand.

Universal precautions to be practiced in health care setting

Uses of immunochromatographic tests.

Name three uses of Immunoflourescence.

Draw a neat labelled diagram of bacterial flagella.

Sterilization by filtration

Neonatal meningitis acquired through infected birth canal is due to: A. S.pyogenes B. Viridians streptococci C. S.agalactiae D. S.pneumoniae

How much bacillary load in sputum is required for an effective transmission of M. tuberculosis? A. 10 bacilli/mL B. 100 bacilli/mL C. 1000 bacilli/mL D. 10000 bacilli/mL

All of these are major antigen presenting cells except A. T cells B. B cells C. Dendritic cells D. Macrophages

Most common manifestation of Toxoplasma gondii in immunocompromised adult A. Lymphadenopathy B. Chorioretinitis C. Myocarditis D. Encephalitis

Which of following is correct about prions? A. Destroyed by autoclaving at 121°C B. Long incubation period C. Immunogenic D. Nucleic acid present

False statement regarding Japanese B encephalitis A. It is caused by flavi virus B. Transmitted by Aedes Mosquito C. Endemic in India D. Man is dead end host

Which of the following statement about mumps is not correct A. Bilateral Parotitis is the most common presentation B. Other salivary glands are never involved C. Atypical mumps presents as meningitis D. Incubation period is about 19 days

The most infective stage in whooping cough is A. Catarrhal stage B. Convalescent stage C. Paroxysmal stage D. All of the above

Fungi that do not affect nail A. Trichophyton B. Epidermophyton C. Microsporum D. Candida albicans

Spores are formed in _______ phase of bacterial growth curve A. Lag B. Log C. Stationary D. Decline

The most effective way to preventing diphtheria A. Hyperbaric oxygen B. Antibiotics C. DPT D. Tonsillectomy

All are prion diseases EXCEPT A. Kuru B. Scrapie C. Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease D. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

The infective form of Balantidium coli is A. Cyst B. Sporozoite C. Trophozoite D. Tachyzoites

Motility of spirochetes is because of A. Peritrichous flagella B. Endoflagella C. Special fimbriae D. Flexible cell walls

False statement about innate immunity is A. Acts as first line of defence B. Complement system plays role C. Nonspecific D. Immunological memory seen

Who is considered as the father of antiseptic surgery? A. Louis pastuer B. Robert Koch C. Edward Jenner D. Joseph Lister

All the following are effective in preventing pharyngoconjunctival fever caused by Adenovirus EXCEPT A. Effective hand washing B. 70% ethanol to disinfect environmental surfaces C. Chlorination of swimming pools and waste water D. Strict asepsis during eye examinations

Which of the cells are not associated with immune mechanisms? A. Basophils B. Dendritic cells C. Mast cells D. Epithelial cells

The larval form of Hymenolepsis nana is A. Hydatid cyst B. Coenurus C. Cysticercus D. Cysticercoid

Scarlet fever is caused by A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Corynebacterium diphtheria C. Streptococcus group C & G D. Arcanotobacterium hemolyticum

Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct A. It results in major antigenic changes B. It is exhibited only by influenza A viruses C. It is due to frame-shift mutations I viral genes D. It occurs more frequently than antigenic shift

Which of the following parasite does not pass through the lungs during its life cycle A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. A.duodenale C. A.lumbricoides D. T.trichiura

Tinea versicolor is caused by A. Candida albicans B. Trichophyton rubrum C. Trichophyton mentagrophytes D. Malassezia furfur

Bacterium having polypeptide capsule is A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Bacillus anthracis C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

IV bottles are disposed in which of the following containers A. Red B. Blue C. Yellow D. Black

The virus which causes hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis is A. Adenovirus B. Poxvirus C. Parvovirus D. Papillomavirus

All are heterophile antigen test EXCEPT A. Paul- Bunnell test B. Weil- Felix test C. Cold Agglutination Test D. Rose -Waaler test

Inclusion bodies are seen in the following conditions EXCEPT A. Rabies B. Herpes C. Yellow fever D. HIV

The antibiotic that cannot be used for treatment of extended spectrum β-lactamase producing organisms A. Ceftriaxone B. Piperacillin – tazobactam C. Amikacin D. Meropenem

Zero dose of OPV is given A. At Birth B. At one month C. When child is having diarrhea D. At the age of 2 years

The example of selective media A. Nutrient agar B. Blood agar C. Thiosulphate citrate bile salt sucrose agar D. Chocolate agar

The type of diphtheria with highest mortality is A. Pharyngeal B. Nasal C. Cutaneous D. Conjunctival

True about tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is A. Microfilariae are not detected in peripheral smear B. Caused by migrating larvae of Ascaris lumbricoides C. Hyaline septate acutely-branching hyphae are seen in sputum D. Productive cough with blood-tinged purulent sputum is characteristic

Tinea versicolor is caused by A. Candida albicans B. Trichophyton rubrum C. Trichophyton violaceum D. Malassezia furfur

Common name of Trichuris trichiura A. Pinworm B. Roundworm C. Whipworm D. Hookworm

Serotyping and serosubtyping of meningococci are based on A. Outer membrane proteins B. Endotoxins C. Capsular polysaccharide D. Transferrin binding proteins

Spore producing bacilli with drum stick appearance is seen in A. C.bifermentans B. C.perfringens C. C.tetani D. C.tertium

Treatment of the sexual partner is generally not required in which of the following infections A. Bacterial Vaginosis B. Trichomoniasis C. Herpes viral infection D. Gonorrhea

Vector for Leishmaniasis is A. Sandfly B. Reduvid bug C. Tsetse fly D. Anopheles mosquito

Commonest cause of septic arthritis is A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus Spp C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Escherichia coli

The causative agent of chancroid A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Haemophilusducreyi C. Haemophilushaemolyticus D. Haemophilusaphrophilus

Hair perforation test is positive in one of the following dermatophytes; A. Trichophyton rubrum B. Trichophyton mentagrophytes C. Trichophyton tonsurans D. Trichophyton violaceum

False about herd immunity is A. It is pathogen-specific B. Depends upon the population composition C. Completely a natural phenomenon D. Determines occurrence of epidemics in the population

Active immunity is not acquired by A. Vaccination B. Immunoglobulin transfer C. Infection D. Vaccination and immunoglobulins

Which of the following is the most effective way of preventing tetanus? A. Hyperbaric oxygen B. Antibiotics C. Tetanus Toxoid D. Surgical debridement and toilet

The following methods of diagnosis utilize labelled antibodies except A. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay B. Radioimmunoassay C. Haemagglutination inhibition test D. Immunofluorescence

Rabies is identified by A. Guarnieri bodies B. Negri bodies C. Cowdry bodies D. Paschen body

An immunocompromised individual has dry cough and breathlessness. Gomori’s methenamine silver stain of bronchoalveolar lavage showed black structures resembling crushed ping-pong balls. The probable causative agent is A. Pneumocystis jirovecii B. Talaromyces marneffei C. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Blastomyces dermatitidis

False statement about dermatophytes A. Fungi that affect the keratinized layer of the skin B. Fungi affecting hair and nail C. They may be geophilic D. They do not grow at room temperature

The correct sequence of manifestation seen in measles A. Fever, Koplik’s spots, rash B. Koplik’s spots, fever, rash C. Rash, fever, Koplik’s spots D. Rash, Koplik’s spots, fever

A pregnant women needs to be screened for all the following organsims causing congenital infections EXCEPT A. Adenovirus B. Rubella virus C. Cytomegalovirus D. Toxoplasmosis

Which of the following tumor is not caused by Epstein-Barr virus? A. Post transplant lymphomas B. Hodgkin’s disease C. Burkitt’s lymphoma D. Kaposi’s sarcoma

Inverted fir tree appearance on gelatin stab culture is a characteristic feature of A. Bacillus anthracis B. Coxiella burnetii C. Brucella melitensis D. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagica

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a complication of which viral infection A. Mumps B. Measles C. Rubella D. Influenza

Molecular mimicry as a mechanism of autoimmune response is seen in A. Rheumatic fever B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Myasthenia gravis

Scrub typhus is transmitted by the bite of A. Louse B. Mite C. Rat flea D. Tick

Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause infection by which of the following helminth A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Trichuris trichiura C. Taenia solium D. Taenia saginata

Traveler’s diarrhea is caused by A. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli B. Enteropathogenic E. coli C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli D. Enteroinvasive E.coli

True about hapten is A. Molecular weight higher than that of simple antigens B. Lack immunogenicity C. Not capable of immunological reactivity D. Always protein in nature

Floatation technique is useful for the detection of A. Larva of strongyloides B. Fertilised eggs of Ascaris lumbricoides C. Taenia eggs D. Operculated eggs of trematodes

Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to: A. Point Mutation B. Enzymatic action C. Efflux pumps D. Modification of binding Protein

An adult man has fever and purulent urethral discharge. Gram stain of the discharge showed gram negative diplococci with adjacent concave surfaces. Treatment of choice is A. Ceftriaxone B. Azithromycin C. Doxycycline D. Acyclovir

Weil Felix reaction is based on A. Auto specificity B. Iso specificity C. Species specificity D. Heterogenic specificity

Following Rubella vaccination, pregnancy should be avoided for atleast how many months? A. 1 month B. 2 months C. 3 months D. 6 months

Not true about Salk vaccine A. Expensive than OPV B. Not useful in epidemics C. Contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals D. Booster doses are required

Gloves are discarded in which of the following containers A. Blue B. Red C. Yellow D. Black

Which of the following is the most common etiological agent of UTI? A. Escherichia coli B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Enterobacter spp

CAMP test is used to identify which of the following bacteria A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Streptococcus pneumonia D. Viridans streptococci

NOT a correct combination is A. Autograft – skin grafted to burn area B. Allograft – graft from genetically non-identical member of the same species C. Isograft – graft from heterozygous twin D. Xenograft – graft from different species

Zero dose of OPV is given A. At one month B. At birth C. At two months D. At three months

Kyasanur Forest Disease virus is transmitted by A. Sandfly B. Aedes mosquito C. Trombiculid mite D. Tick

Hand –foot and mouth disease is caused by A. Herpes Simplex virus B. Coxsackie virus C. Measles virus D. Chicken pox virus

NOT a professional antigen presenting cell is A. Macrophage B. Dendritic cell C. B lymphocyte D. T lymphocyte

A cook in a hostel mess suffered from enteric fever 2 years back. The chronic carrier state in this patient can be diagnosed by A. Widal test B. Blood culture C. Vi Antibody test D. Bone marrow culture

Giant cell pneumonia is a complication of infection with which of the following viruses A. Measles virus B. Rubella Virus C. Mumps virus D. Respiratory syncytial virus

A patient coming from Himachal Pradesh presents with multiple skin lesion. Microscopy reveals cigar shaped yeast cells and asteroid bodies. Microscopy of culture shows flower like pattern. Identify the agent A. Candida albicans B. Sporothrix schenkii C. Epidermophyton floccosum D. Rhizopus species

All of the following viruses cause viral meningitis EXCEPT A. Enteroviruses B. Herpes simplex virus C. Arbovirus D. Rotavirus

True about standard tests for syphilis is A. Detect antibodies to treponemal antigens B. Can not differentiate recent and past infection C. Positive results irrespective of titers are significant D. Help in assessing response to treatment

Gram stain morphology of Bacillus anthracis is A. Tennis racket appearance B. Drumstick appearance C. Bamboo stick appearance D. Spectacle glass appearance

Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted by A. Mite B. Louse C. Tick D. Mosquito

Which of the following is not a common cause of neonatal meningitis? A. E.coli B. S.agalactiae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. S.pneumoniae

Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by which of the following? A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Moraxella catarrhalis C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Hemophilus influenzae

Scalded skin syndrome is mediated by A. Hemolysin B. Coagulase C. Enterotoxin D. Epidermolytic toxin

A bridge between innate and acquired immunity is A. Complement components B. Neutrophils C. T lymphocytes D. Natural killer cells

Herpes is identified by A. Guarneri bodies B. Negri bodies C. Cowdry type A bodies D. Paschen bodies

In which phase of bacterial growth curve sporulation occurs A. Lag Phase B. Log Phase C. Phase of decline D. Stationary Phase

Antigenic cross-reactivity between Streptococcal antigen and corresponding human antigen is the underlying mechanism in rheumatic fever. The correct combination of cross-reacting antigens is A. Hyaluronic acid – skin antigen B. Cytoplasmic membrane – synovial tissue C. Cell wall C antigen – Cardiac wall D. M protein – glomerular vascular intima

Which of the following is the most recommended method for diagnosis of pediatric HIV infection A. DNA PCR B. RNA PCR C. Real time PCR D. P24 antigen detection

“Malignant pustule” is a term used for: A. An infected malignant melanoma B. A carbuncle C. A rapidly spreading rodent ulcer D. Cutaneous Anthrax

Sclerotic bodies are seen in A. Mucormucosis B. Aspergillus C. Rhinosporidiosis D. Chromoblastomycosis

Carrom coin appearance of colonies is seen for A. S. pyogenes B. Viridans streptococci C. S. agalactiae D. S.pneumoniae

A lady has multiple painless dome-shaped, pink pearly wart-like umbilicated lesions, with a dimple at the center in perigenital area. Most useful test in this case is A. Demonstration of Molluscum bodies in biopsied lesion B. Leishman stained smear of the lesion to show Guarneri bodies C. Iodine-stained smear of lesion to demonstrate inclusion bodies D. Gram stain of lesion to show gram negative bacilli with safety-pin appearance

During which of the following phases bacteria are most susceptible to antibiotics? A. Lag Phase B. Log phase C. Stationary phase D. Phase of decline

Bejel is caused by A. Treponema pertenue B. Treponema endemicum C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema carateum

Hand –foot-mouth disease is caused by A. HSV B. Coxsackie virus C. Measles D. Chickenpox

Survival of M. Tuberculosis inside the macrophages is due to A. Inhibition of entry into the host cell B. Inhibition of entry into the phagosome C. Inhibition of phagosome – lysosome fusion D. Inhibts degradation by lysosomal enzymes

Which of the following is not an agent of non-Gonococcal urethritis? A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Candida albicans C. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Mycoplasma hominis

Which of the following is a not a liver fluke A. Fasciolopsis buski B. Fasciola hepatica C. Clonorchis sinensis D. Opisthorchis viverini

All of the following are dimorphic fungi EXCEPT A. Histoplasma capsulatum B. Blastomyces dermatitidis C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Sporothrix schenckii

Accessory growth factors required by Haemophilus influenza is / are A. X factor B. V factor C. Both X and V factor D. M factor

Which hepatitis virus is associated with the highest mortality in pregnancy? A. Hepatitis E Virus B. Hepatitis C Virus C. Hepatitis B Virus D. Hepatitis A Virus

A diabetic patient with polytrauma with multiple infected wounds is admitted in the hospital for one month and received multiple antibiotics. He develops diarrhea and colonoscopy showed membranous patches. Most probable causative agent is A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Enteroaggregative Escherichia coli C. Clostridioides difficile D. Candida albicans

The most common agent causing traveller’s diarrhoea is A. Enteroaggregative E.coli B. Norovirus C. Rotavirus D. Enterotoxigenic E.coli

The best protection will be achieved if first dose of Post Exposure Prophylaxis for HIV is taken within A. 2 hours of exposure B. 6 hours of exposure C. 12 hours of exposure D. 72 hours of exposure

Serological testing of a patient complaining of jaundice for 6 months revealed HbsAg (+ve) anti Hbs (-ve) anti HBcIgG (+ve) aHbeAg (+ve) and anti Hbe (-ve) The provisional diagnosis is A. Acute hepatitis with high infectivity B. Acute hepatitis with low infectivity C. Chronic hepatitis with high infectivity D. Chronic hepatitis with low infectivity

Urine wet mount of a man with hematuria showed oval and elongated, non-operculated eggs measuring 150 × 50 μm, with a terminal spine. It is suggestive of A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Schistosoma mansoni C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Schistosoma urealyticum

Who is the father of antiseptic surgery A. Robert Koch B. Paul Ehrlich C. Joseph Lister D. Alexander Fleming

MRSA is mediated due to A. Plasmid B. Mec A gene C. Transposons D. Chromosome

All of the following are true about bacterial vaginosis EXCEPT A. Discharge has offensive smell B. pH>4.5 C. causative agent is Chlamydia trachomatis D. Clue cell is diagnostic

Which is not a property of S. Pneumoniae? A. Bile solubility B. Animal pathogenicity in mice C. Grows in presence of 40% bile D. Optochin sensitivity

Which of the following virus possess haemagglutinin but not neuraminidase spikes A. Parainfluenza virus B. Pneumovirus C. Measles virus D. Respiratory syncytial virus

Which is known as Australia antigen A. HBsAg B. HBcAg C. HBeAg D. HBV DNA

Germ Tube test is positive in which of the following organisms A. C. albicans B. C. tropicalis C. C. parapsilosis D. C. auris

Most common fungus causing orbital cellulitis in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is A. Mucor Spp B. Aspergillus Spp C. Candida Spp D. Cryptococcus neoformans

Which of the following clinical sample is NOT suitable for anaerobic infections? A. Swabs B. Tissue bit C. Necrotic material D. Aspirates in air tight container

NOT suitable for diagnosis of enterobiasis is A. Demonstration of adult worm in clothes B. NIH swab C. Microscopy of freshly passed stool D. Perianal cellophane tape mount

False statement about hyper infection syndrome A. It is due to repeated autoinfection cycles B. Caused by Strongyloides stercoralis C. Seen in immunocompetent patients D. Causes enteritis or Malabsorption

In a post-operative ward, five patients developed wound infection with the same organism. The best method to prevent cross infection in the same ward is A. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward B. Fumigate the ward C. Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite D. Practice hand hygiene measures

Food poisoning within 4-6 hours of intake of food indicates presence of toxin of A. Staphyloccus aureus B. Clostridium perfringens C. Salmonella typhimurium D. V. cholerae

All of following bacteria can cause acute bacterial meningitis EXCEPT A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Neisseria gonorrheae

True about Kyasanur Forest Disease is A. Endemic in central African countries B. Transmitted by soft tick C. Monkeys are amplifier hosts D. Encephalitis is the characteristic feature

During first week of enteric fever ,salmonellae can be isolated from all EXCEPT A. Bone marrow B. Blood C. Duodenal aspirate D. Urine sample

Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Transposition

Haemophilus influenza grows on all of the following media EXCEPT A. Chocolate agar B. Filde’s agar C. Nutrient agar D. Blood agar with S.aureus streak line

Production of early metachromatic granules can be seen best in which of the following media A. Nutrient agar B. Chocolate agar C. Loeffler’s serum slope D. Potassium tellurite agar

All of the following infections are vector borne infections in India EXCEPT A. Dengue B. Chikungunya C. Japanese encephalitis D. Yellow fever

Antibodies against which of the following antigen appear in typhoid carrier A. O antigen B. H antigen C. Vi antigen D. Capsular antigen

A child aged 6 years vomited a white worm with cylindrical body measuring 20 cm. Parents gave history of passing similar worm in feces a few months ago. Stool examination showed many brown ova. Probable organism is A. Necator americanus B. Trichuris trichiura C. Taenia saginata D. Ascaris lumbricoides

Oocyst of Toxoplasma gondii excreted in the feces of A. Cat B. Sheep C. Cattle D. Dog

Bipolar staining is characteristic feature of A. Shigella spp B. Yersinia pestis C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Proteus spp

Which bacterial spores are used as sterilization control in autoclave? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Bacillus cereus C. Geobacillus stearothermophilus D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Cystic lesion in liver of a veterinarian, showed brood capsules and protoscolices under the microscopy. The probable organism is A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Echinococcus granulosus C. Faciola hepatica D. Schistosoma japonicum

Koplik’s spot in buccal mucosa is diagnostic of A. Mumps B. Measles C. Erythema infectiosum D. Rubella

Metal sharp waste should be segregated in which color box? A. Yellow B. Red C. Blue D. White

Leishmania donovani can be cultivated in A. Blood agar B. NNN medium C. Diamonds medium D. RPMI medium

Human acquired cysticercus cellulosae infection is NOT caused by A. Ingestion of contaminated vegetables B. Autoinfections C. Reverse peristalsis D. Ingestion of contaminated pig’s meat

True about human infection by Taenia solium is that A. Man can be definitive or intermediate host B. Non-bile-stained eggs C. Scolex is quadrangular without rostellum and hooklets D. Adult worm has cylindrical body

Babesiosis is transmitted by bite of A. Anopheles mosquito B. Sandfly C. Mite D. Tick

Which of the following viruses is enveloped? A. Poliomyelitis virus B. Adeno virus C. Herpes virus D. Parvovirus B19

Which of the following pattern of fever is seen in Brucellosis A. Relapsing fever B. Step ladder fever C. Undulant fever D. Pontiac fever

Drug of choice for rat bite fever A. Amikacin B. Cephalosporin C. Penicillin G D. Tetracycline

Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage is called A. Conjugation B. Transduction C. Transformation D. Transposition

True about Strongyloides stercoralis is A. It can complete the life cycle independent of any host B. Infection is acquired by ingestion of embryonated ova C. Diagnosis is done by demonstrating ova in stool sample D. Commonly produces Loeffler syndrome

Humans acquire Cysticercus cellulosae infection by all EXCEPT A. Ingestion of contaminated vegetables B. Autoinfection C. Reverse peristalsis D. Ingestion of contaminated pig’s meat

Man is a definitive host in A. Cysticercosis B. Hydatid cyst disease C. Toxoplasmosis D. Intestinal taeniasis

Babesiosis is transmitted by A. Mites B. Ticks C. Flea D. Mosquito

A girl aged 4 years has rashes on the skin along with fever. Rashes are centripetally distributed. Rashes appeared in crops and have macules, papules, vesicles, pustules and scabs. The girl had most probably acquired the infection by A. Aerosols B. Insect bite C. Ingestion D. None of the above

The granules discharged in mycetoma contain A. Bone spicules B. Fungal colonies C. Pus cells D. Digested tissue

All the following are Opportunistic fungi EXCEPT A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Rhizopus arrhizus C. Candida albicans D. Histoplasma capsulatum

The gene coding for core of HIV is A. Gag B. Env C. Pol D. Tat

True about infections caused by zoophilic dermatophytes is A. Commonest organism is Trichophyton rubrum B. Mild symptoms C. Resolve more quickly D. Can be grown only by using experimental animals

Causative agent of Calabar swelling is A. Dracunculus medinensis B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Brugiya malayi D. Loa loa

Spherules are seen in A. Rhinosporidiosis B. Chromoblastomycosis C. Mucor mycosis D. Aspergillosis

Analysis of pyogenic meningitis reveals all of the following, EXCEPT A. CSF pressure – highly elevated B. Total leukocyte count – highly elevated, neutrophilic C. Glucose – highly elevated D. Total proteins – markedly increased

A 10 year old boy was brought to the OPD with high grade fever, productive cough with rusty sputum and difficulty in breathing for the past two days. Physical examination showed dull note on percussion. Microscopy of the sputum sample showed plenty of pus cells and gram positive, lanceolate diplococcic surrounded by a halo a) What is the clinical diagnosis of this condition and the most likely etiologic agent? b) How will you confirm the etiologic agent in the laboratory? c) Describe the virulence factors and the pathogenesis of the etiological agent d) How will you manage this clinical condition?

Enumerate small intestinal human nematodes. Describe in detail about the life cycle and pathogenesis of Ascaris lumbricoides.

Describe the lifecycle and laboratory diagnosis of Entamoeba histolytica

A 20-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with fever, headache, nausea, confusion, restlessness, hallucination and difficulty in swallowing liquids. His friends mentioned that he had been bitten by a street dog two months ago. As the wound was neither deep nor painful, he was not taken to hospital then, instead simple wound cleaning was done at hostel without any medical treatment. After 2 days he developed painful spasm of the respiratory laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles and he died of respiratory failure. a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of causative agent b) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition c) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis. d) Add a note on post exposure prophylaxis for dog bite

A 35 year old male came with history of intravenous drug abuse and is admitted with complaints of unexplained fever progressive weight loss persistant diarrhoea and generalized lymph adenopathy for the past 8 months a) What is the most probable diagnosis? b) Discuss the pathogenesis of the disease c) The laboratory diagnosis with NACO guidelines d) Precautions to be followed for prevention

Three members of a family who attended a gathering in a village complained of passing loose stools about 6 to 10 times per day. On examination all of them had signs of dehydration and stool samples collected appears like rice water a) Name the most probable causative bacterial agent b) Describe pathogenesis of this condition c) Describe laboratory diagnosis of this condition d) Outline the measures to manage this outbreak

Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B virus infection. Add a note on prevention.

A 44 old woman presented to casualty with history of recurrent low grade fever and headache from past 30 days. Patient developed vomiting from past two days. On examination patient had signs of meningitis. CSF examination revealed the presence of AFB a) Diagnose this clinical condition b) Describe in detail pathogenesis of this condition c) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis d) Add a note on DOTS

A 30-year-old woman was brought to a hospital from a rural area where she had been admitted with fever, anorexia and vomiting for the past 4 days followed by delirium and hallucination and severe spasms on drinking fluid. Her relatives informed the doctor that she had been bitten by a stray dog about 2 months back. a) What is the most probable etiological diagnosis? b) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of the causative agent c) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of this condition d) Add a note on prophylaxis of this condition

Enumerate Arboviruses seen in India. Describe in detail about pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Dengue virus infection.

Draw a neat labelled diagram of morphology of bacteria and describe in detail about it

Describe the pathogenesis. Laboratory diagnosis, treatment and prophylaxis of enteric fever

Describe the structure, pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Corona virus. Add a note on infection control measures.

A 40-year-old-man presented to hospital with complaints of fever and weight loss. On examination, 102oF fever and anaemia were noted. Enlargement of liver and spleen were also present. The bone marrow aspirate collected was subjected to Giemsa staining which revealed amastigotes filled within a macrophage. a) Identify the etiological agent and the clinical diagnosis? b) Write about the life cycle & pathogenesis of the etiological agent. c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of above condition.

Define and classify immunity. Describe acquired immunity.

Mention the general features of Nematodes and add a note on Ascaris lumbricoides

Define sterilization and classify methods of sterilization. Discuss in detail moist heat sterilization

Enumerate Nematodes. Describe life cycle, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides.

Enumerate the etiologic agents of viral meningitis. Discuss briefly lab diagnosis of viral meningitis.

A 45 years old female has attended he Gynac op with c/o Mucopurulient vaginal discharge or the past one week. In gram staining of cervical swab, kidney shaped Gram negative coci are seen. Answer the following question a) Name the bacteria causing this infection b) Name bacterial sexually transmitted infections c) Discuss the lab diagnosis of this infection

Classify nematodes. Describe the life cycle, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Hookworm infection.

Describe the life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum. Mention the complications of Plasmodium falciparum infection

Enumerate the causes of acute food bacterial poisoning. Describe the pathogenesis, clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of food poisoning.

An adult man presented with intermittent fever, loss of appetite and pain abdomen since 8 days. On examination he is febrile and spleen is palpable. Titres obtained in Widal test are O=80, H=160, AH=<20 and BH=<20. a) Identify the causative agent b) Describe laboratory diagnosis of this condition during different phases of infection c) Suggest methods to prevent this infection

Mr. A, 40 yrs old male presents with painful vesicular lesions on the trunk region. He informs the dermatologist that he is getting this for the second time in the same year. Haematological investigations revealed that he had leucopenia with lymphocytopenia. Tzanck smear from the vesicles showed cells with ground glass appearance. Further tests revealed that he was reactive to HIV a) What is the clinical condition the patient presented with? b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of HIV c) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection d) Add a note on the post-exposure prophylaxis against HIV after needle stick injury as per NACO guidelines

Enumerate the organisms causing Acute Pyogenic meningitis. Describe the various laboratory diagnostic methods to diagnose Acute Pyogenic meningitis.

A farmer presented to outpatient department with history of papulovesicular lesions over the neck region, which later on developed into a coal-black, necrotic wound for the past 3 to 4 days. Gram stain of a tissue from that necrotic area revealed Gram positive bacilli arranged in chains. a) What is clinical diagnosis and causative agent? b) Describe the pathogenesis and various forms of clinical presentation of this infection. c) Describe laboratory investigations to confirm the diagnosis.

A 23 year old male patient from an endemic area came to the OPD with complaints of intermittent fever with chills and rigors, for the past 3 days. There was intense sweating following each fever episode. On examination he was febrile with temperature of 101°F and had mild Splenomegaly. Peripheral smear study shows the presence of parasites inside RBC’s a) Name the causative agent and the vector b) Describe the life cycle of the causative agent c) Write the pathogenicity of the causative agent d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of the causative agent

A two year old boy was brought to the hospital with history of high fever with vomiting and drowsiness. On examination the child has neck rigidity and other signs of meningitis. CSF examination was suggestive of bacterial meningitis a) List the bacteria causing acute meningitis b) Describe the pathogenesis of meningococcal meningitis c) Describe in detail sample collection and laboratory diagnosis of meningitis d) Discuss prevention of meningococcal meningitis

A lady aged 26 years presented with high grade fever with chills, headache since 4 days. On examination she had neck stiffness and Kernig’s sign was positive. CSF gram stain showed gram negative diplococci with adjacent flat surfaces. a) Identify the causative agent b) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition c) Describe laboratory diagnosis of this condition d) Suggest methods of prevention

Classify Mycobacteria. Describe the pathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of pulmonary tuberculosis

Define sterilization. Classify sterilization methods. Discuss about moist heat sterilization.

Discuss the pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis

A 9 year old boy from an overcrowded colony presented to the paediatric emergency department during monsoons with complaints of profuse and frequent watery diarrhoea since the previous day, accompanied by 2-3 episodes of vomiting. On examination, he was found to be moderately dehydrated. The stool on gross examination had a characteristic ‘Rice water’ appearance. a. What is the probable etiological diagnosis? b. Discuss in detail epidemiology and pathogenesis of the above condition c. Add a note on laboratory diagnosis

A 55 year old male was admitted to the hospital with the complaints of severe pain in the lateral aspect of left lower limb. On examination the local area was found to be red, warm and tender. Pus was aspirated and sent for Gram’s stain and culture. Gram’s stain shows Gram positive cocci in chains. Culture has yielded beta – hemolytic colonies on blood agar. a. What is the clinical diagnosis and its causative organism? b. Mention four deep tissue infections caused by this organism. c. Mention four virulence factors of this organism. d. Briefly discuss laboratory diagnosis.

Define and classify Sterilization. Describe principle and uses of autoclave.

A 32 year old female was admitted with dysuria (burning micturation) and increased frequency of micturation from past 2 days. Culture of the urine specimen revealed lactose fermenting clonies on Mac Conkey agar. a. What is your clinical diagnosis and probable etiological agents? b. What are the risk factors associated, pathogenesis and clinical manifestation of this disease? c. How will you treat this clinical condition?

Define disinfection. Describe in detail various chemical agents used in disinfection. Add a note on testing of disinfectants.

A 7-month old baby was admitted to the hospital with complaints of high-grade fever, vomiting, seizure and neck rigidity. CSF sample was collected by lumbar puncture in a sterile container and sent to the laboratory for biochemical analysis, cell count and culture and sensitivity testing. Gram’s stain revealed, gram negative diplococci a) What is probable clinical diagnosis? b) What are the etiological agents? c) Pathogenesis of this disease d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail e) What are the treatment modalities in this case?

Describe in detail about the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection. Add a note on opportunistic infection seen in AIDS.

Classify Herpes viruses. Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Herpes Simplex Virus – I

A 25-year-old male presented to STD clinic with a single, painless genital ulcer of 12days duration. He had a history of sexual exposure with a commercial sex worker. On examination the penile ulcer was hard and indurated along with inguinal lymph node enlargement. Blood sample was collected and sent for VDRL test. The test was reactive at 1:128 dilution. a) What is your diagnosis and mention the causative agent? b) Enumerate the other causative agents of genital ulcer c) Describe the laboratory diagnostic methods in above case d) Mention the complications of the above condition

A 13 year old boy developed severe watery diarrhoea and vomiting. The stool collected has a rice water type of appearance. It was sent for bacterial culture a) What is the probable etiological agent of this condition? b) Describe in detail the pathogenesis of this condition c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this organism d) Add a note on prophylaxis and prevention

A commercial sex worker presents with intermittent fever, diarrhea and weight loss since two months. On examination she has oral thrush and enlarged lymph nodes in neck and axilla. Laboratory Investigation revealed that, serum was positive for P24 Antigen and her CD4 Count is less than 200 /mm a) Diagnose the most probable clinical condition and identify the causative agent of this clinical condition b) Describe pathogenesis of this clinical condition c) Describe laboratory diagnosis of the underlying primary disease d) Outline the medicolegal and ethical requirements that need to be met during laboratory diagnosis of this condition

Describe the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides and laboratory diagnosis of Ascariasis.

A 65 year old patient visited a hospital with complaints of dry cough, sore throat and fever. During the visit patient was not wearing any mask. The security guard guided him to go to the casualty. The resident doctor who was also not wearing the mask, took the history and examined the patient. His throat swab was sent for COVID-19 testing, which turned out to be positive. Subsequently the security and the resident doctor also turned out to be positive for Covid-19. a) Name four respiratory viruses b) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of this disease c) Identify the infection control breaches d) Discuss the infection control measures to prevent the transmission along with note on vaccines

A 5-year-old child was brought to emergency department with high grade fever, pain in the throat, toxic and difficulty in swallowing. On examination, he had enlarged cervical lymph nodes and his tonsillar pillars were covered with greyish white membrane on the tonsils, which started bleeding when touched. His vaccination card revealed incomplete adherence to the immunization schedule. a) What is the clinical diagnosis and its etiological agent? b) Describe pathogenesis of this condition c) Describe laboratory diagnosis of this condition d) Discuss the treatment and prophylaxis for this condition

Describe in detail about clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of Amoebiasis.

Discuss the pathogenesis, lab diagnosis of Enteric Fever.

Define and classify hypersensitivity reactions. Describe type I hypersensitivity reactions

Enumerate the malarial parasites. Discuss the life cycle, morphological forms and lab diagnosis of plasmodium vivax infection.

A 25-year-old-man complains of mild fever, abdominal cramps, tenesmus, frequent passage of stools associated with blood and mucus. Stool microscopy shows abundant pus cells and no ova/cysts/trophozoites were seen. Stool culture yielded the growth of non-lactose fermenters. a) What is the etiological agent causing above clinical condition? b) Describe the pathogenesis and complications of the above clinical condition c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of the above clinical condition

Classify vibrios. Write in detail about pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of cholera.

Discuss in detail modes of transmission and lab diagnosis of HIV

a) What is Bio-medical waste (BMW)? b) Why BMW management is important? c) How BMW are Segregated, collected and disposed? d) Add a note on Needle stick injury management

Enumerate Entero Viruses. Describe pathogenicity and prophylaxis of Polio.

Describe the structure, pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Rabies. Add a note on its prophylaxis.

Define PUO and describe the lab diagnosis of PUO in detail

Describe the structure and laboratory diagnosis of HIV virus. Add a note on its prevention.

Discuss the pathogenesis and prophylaxis of poliomyelitis

Define Hypersensitivity. Describe type IV hypersensitivity.

A truck driver with history of exposure to multiple sex workers presents with loss of weight for the past three months and on investigation he is reactive for HIV-1. a) Draw neat labelled diagram of HIV virus b) Discuss the different modes of transmission of HIV and measures to prevent this condition c) Discuss the different NACO strategies for the laboratory diagnosis

A 16 year old girl presented with fever, abdominal pain, loose stools with blood and mucus. Microscopic examination of stool showed many pus cells and non-motile bacilli a) Enumerate the causative agents of dysentery b) Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Shigellosis c) Compare and contrast Amoebic dysentery and Bacillary dysentery