Pathology Previous Year Question Papers
1081
76 papers · MBBS · previous-year papers
- KNRUHS MBBS Pathology January 2026 (MB2019113 Regular)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KNRUHS MBBS Pathology January 2026 (MB2019114 Regular)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology April 2026 (1082 RS3)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology April 2026 (1081 RS3)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KNRUHS MBBS Pathology August 2025 (MB2019113 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KNRUHS MBBS Pathology June 2025 (MB2019113 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KNRUHS MBBS Pathology June 2025 (MB2019114 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KNRUHS MBBS Pathology August 2025 (MB2019114 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology November 2025 (1027 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology April 2025 (1026 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology November 2025 (1026 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology April 2025 (1082 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology April 2025 (1081 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology September 2025 (1081 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology September 2025 (1082 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology April 2025 (1027 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology - March 2025 (203001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - March 2025 (204001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - August 2025 (203001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - August 2025 (204001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2024 (1027 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology January 2024 (1026 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology May 2024 (1026 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology December 2024 (1027 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology August 2024 (1081 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology January 2024 (1081 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology August 2024 (1082 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2024 (1082 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - August 2024 (204001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - December 2024 (213001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - December 2024 (214001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - June 2024 (213001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - June 2024 (214001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - March 2024 (203001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - March 2024 (204001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - March 2024 (214001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - March 2024 (213001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology May 2023 (1026 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2023 (1027 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2023 (1082 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology July 2023 (1082 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2023 (1081 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology July 2023 (1081 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2023 (1026 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology May 2023 (1027 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - January 2023 (214001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - July 2023 (204001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - July 2023 (213001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - March 2023 (203001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - January 2023 (213001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - July 2023 (203001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - July 2023 (214001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - March 2023 (204001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- NTRUHS MBBS Pathology February 2022 (CBME)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- NTRUHS MBBS Pathology January 2022 (CBME)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2022 (1026 CBME)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology August 2022 (1082 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2022 (1081 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology July 2022 (1081 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2022 (1082 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology February 2022 (1027 CBME)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - February 2022 (213001 2019 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - July 2022 (214001 2019 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - October 2022 (204001 2010 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - February 2022 (214001 2019 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - July 2022 (213001 2019 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - May 2022 (203001 2010 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - October 2022 (203001 2010 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology September 2021 (1081 RS3)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology September 2021 (1082 RS3)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - February 2021 (204001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - May 2021 (203001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology November 2020 (1081 RS3)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- RGUHS MBBS Pathology November 2020 (1082 RS3)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - February 2020 (204001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
- KUHS MBBS Pathology Previous Question Paper - February 2020 (203001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Pathology
Showing 20 of 1417 questions
A eight year old boy was brought to clinic by his mother with complaints of shifting joint pain and swelling involving knee joint, elbow joint etc. and fever since three days on enquiry it was found that the child had an attack of sore throat based on this information a. What is your probable diagnosis b. Enlist the organs which may get affected c. What is the pathogenesis of this disease d. Enlist the causes of death in this condition
a. Define apoptosis b. Enumerate in detail about the pathways of apoptosis c. What are the other methods of all death
A 72 years old male presented with changes in the bowel habit, bleeding per rectum, loss of weight fatigue and weakness of six months duration. After endoscopic biopsy on colon, a left sided hemicolectomy was done. Answer the following: a. What is the probable diagnosis b. Describe the etiopathogenesis c. Describe the gross and microscopic features of the resected colon d. Mention the serological the marker which is increased
a. Define hypersensitivity b. Explain in detail with examples of each type of hypersensitivity c. Explain in detail on type I hypersensitivity
Write a brief note on coal workers pneumoconiosis
Define necrosis. Explain in detail on various types of necrosis
Write a short note on mesothelioma
Explain briefly on intracellular accumulations and pigments
Histopathology of cirrhosis of liver
Explain briefly on disseminated intravascular coagulation
Skeletal manifestation of hyperparathyroidism
Write a note on angiogenesis
Prognostic factors in carcinoma breast
Write a note on radiation induced carcinogenesis
Write a note on Crescentic Glomerulonephritis and its light microscopy findings
Write in detail about lead poisoning
Write a note on screening for cervical cancer
Elucidate lysosomal storage disorders
Write a brief note on Cushing's syndrome
Write a brief note on Down's syndrome
Elaborate about primary biliary cholangitis
Write in detail the pathogenesis of AIDS
Write a note on etiology, pathogenesis and clinical features of osteomyelitis
Enumerate and explain the stages of Lupus Nephritis
Bronchiectasis.
Differences between Transudate and Exudate.
CSF findings in Pyogenic Meningitis.
Cirrhosis of Liver
Von Willebrand’s Disease.
Acute pancreatitis.
Rheumatic Heart Disease.
Paget’s disease of Nipple.
Astrocytoma.
Define Apoptosis. Describe morphological features and mechanism of Apoptosis.
Fat Embolism.
Silicosis.
Transplant rejection.
Down’s syndrome.
Pathology of Vitamin D deficiency.
Complications of Wound Healing.
Microscopy of Schwannoma.
In which of the following vegetation are friable and easily detachable from the cardiac valves: a) Rheumatic fever b) Rheumatoid heart disease c) SLE d) Infective Endocarditis
Epstein Barr virus causes all EXCEPT: a) Infectious Mononucleosis b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma c) Burkitt's lymphoma d) Acute myeloid leukaemia
Lymphocytosis is not associated with: a) Infectious mononucleosis b) Mumps c) German measles d) Parasitic infestations
'Leather bottle stomach" results from which type of Carcinoma Stomach: a) Ulcerative type b) Diffuse infiltration type c) Polypoidal type d) Fungating type
The features of Crohn’s disease are all except a) Lymphoid hyperplasia b) Skip lesion c) Transmural involvement d) Crypt abscess
M spike in multiple myeloma is usually due to a) IgG b) IgM c) IgE d) IgD
Granular contracted Kidney is seen in all except a) Chronic glomerulonephritis b) Acute glomerulonephritis c) Chronic pyelonephritis d) Benign hypertension
Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis can occur due to all except: a) Busulfan b) Nitrofurantoin c) Tetracycline d) Bleomycin
Microcytic blood picture is seen in all except a) Thalassemia b) Sideroblastic anaemia c) Pernicious anaemia d) Anaemia of chronic disorders
Toxic megacolon is a complication of a) Crohn’s disease b) Ulcerative colitis c) Necrotizing enterocolitis d) Pseudomembranous enterocolitis
All the following have a role to play in hepatocellular carcinoma EXCEPT: a) HBV infection b) HCV invention c) Aflatoxins d) Hepatitis E
Disseminated intravascular coagulation is one of the most dreaded complications of which of the following type of leukemia? a) Acute Myeloid Leukaemia - M2 b) Acute Myeloid Leukemia-M4 c) Acute Myeloid Leukemia-M3 d) Acute lymphoid leukaemia
The most common malignancy of stomach is a) Adenocarcinoma b) Squamous cell carcinoma c) Lymphoma d) Gastrointestinal stromal tumour
All of the following is true for anaemia of chronic diseases except? a) Low serum iron levels b) Low erythropoietin c) Increased hepcidin d) Low ferritin
Total iron binding capacity is raised in a) Iron deficiency anaemia b) Renal disease c) Malignant disease d) Infections
Ghon’s focus is present in: a) Progressive tuberculosis b) Secondary tuberculosis c) Miliary tuberculosis d) Primary tuberculosis
Which of the following is associated with the development of bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma: a) Silicosis b) Asbestosis c) Siderosis d) Anthracosis
Blood transfusion transmits the following viral diseases EXCEPT: a) Dengue haemorrhagic fever b) Hepatitis C c) Parvovirus B-19 d) Hepatitis B
Tuberculous ulcers in bowel have the following features except: a) They begin in the Peyer's patches b) They are transverse to the long axis c) Advanced cases may cause intestinal obstruction d) Diagnostic non caseating granulomas
Defect in sickle cell disease is a) Glutamate residue instead of a valine residue at the 6th amino acid position in (3-globin b) Valine residue instead of a glutamate residue at the 6th amino acid position in 13-globin c) Glutamate residue instead of a valine residue at the 6th amino acid position in a -globin d) Valine residue instead of a glutamate residue at the 6th amino acid position in a-globin
Defective platelet aggregation is seen in a) Bernard-Soulier syndrome b) Glanzman’s syndrome c) Haemophilia d) Vitamin K deficiency
All the following ovarian tumors arise from surface epithelium except: a) Teratoma b) Serous cystadenoma c) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma d) Brenner tumour
Nodular glomerulosclerosis is characteristic feature of: a) Amyloidosis b) SLE c) Membranous glomerulonephritis d) Diabetes Mellitus
Irreversibility following cell injury is consistently characterized by a) loss of mitochondrial function b) fatty change c) Vacuolar degeneration d) hypertrophy of endoplasmic reticulum
The following hepatitis virus is a DNA virus: a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis E
Hodgkin lymphoma with frequent mononuclear cells and classical Reed Sternberg a) Nodular sclerosis b) Lymphocyte depletion c) Mixed cellularity d) Lymphocyte predominance
An young man met with a road accident and had left femoral fracture after which his leg was immobilized in a plaster cast for 6 weeks following which the diameter of the left calf was decreased in size. This change in size is most likely to result from which of the following alterations in his calf muscles? a) Hyperplasia b) Atrophy c) Dystrophy d) Hyalinosis
Sunray appearance in osteosarcoma is due to? a) Periosteal reaction b) Osteonecrosis c) Formation of osteoid along vessels d) Calcification
What is FALSE about Phaeochromocytoma? a) A tumour of adrenal cortex b) Tumour secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine c) Tumour cells are chromaffin positive d) Clinically associated with labile hypertension
Not a cardinal sign of inflammation is a) Palor b) Calor c) Dolor d) Loss of function
The most common soft tissue tumour in adults is a) Synovial sarcoma b) Lipoma c) Neurofibroma d) Fibroma
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is characterized by: a) Decreased platelet survival b) Decreased production of platelets c) Hypersplenism d) Dilutional thrombocytopenia
In case of tissue subjected to hypoxic damage the cells in this tissue begin to swell with chromatin clumping in cell nuclei, ATPases are activated, and ATP production decreases. Which of the following ions accumulating in mitochondria and the cytosol contributes most to these findings and to eventual cell death? a) Ca2+ b) Cl- c) HCO3- d) K+
Medial calcific sclerosis is a type of a) Metastatic calcification b) Dystrophic calcification c) Both metastatic and dystrophic calcification d) Neither metastatic nor dystrophic calcification
Commonest sarcoma in children is- a) Rhabdomyosarcoma b) Lipoma c) Angiosarcoma d) Fibrosarcoma
Oedema resulting from renal dysfunction often manifests first in a) Legs b) Sacral region c) Peri-orbital region d) Lungs
Organ not involved in MEN-1 syndrome is a) Parathyroid b) Pancreas c) Thyroid d) Pituitary
Bombay phenotype are the individuals who: a) Lack H genes and therefore H substance b) Possess A, B antigens c) Secrete excessive amount of H substance d) Lack C, D and E antigens
A child with a history of recurrent infections with pyogenic bacteria had an area of soft tissue necrosis and the microscopic examination of the biopsy obtained from this tissue showed microbial organisms, but very few neutrophils. The analysis of the case showed neutrophil functional defect involving rolling. The most probable cause of increased susceptibility to infection is a defect involving which of the following molecules? a) Selectins b) Complement C3b c) Integrins d) Leukotriene B4
Cell of origin of meningioma is from: a) Dura mater b) Arachnoid cap cell layer c) Pia mater d) Choroid plexus
Pulseless disease is an alternative name for a) Temporal arteritis b) Kawasaki's disease c) Buerger's disease d) Takayasu arteritis
Nutmeg liver is the description of morphology occurring in which of the following conditions a) Hyperaemia of liver b) Chronic venous congestion of liver c) Cirrhosis of liver d) Inflammation of liver
MacCallum's patch appears in the region of: a) Endocardial surface in the posterior wall of left atrium b) Pericardial surface in the posterior wall of left ventricle c) Pericardial surface in the posterior wall of left atrium d) Endocardial surface in the posterior wall of left ventricle
Cyclin dependent Kinases are all except a) P57 b) P21 c) P53 d) P27
Diabetic foot is an example of: a) Dry gangrene b) Wet gangrene c) Gas gangrene d) Necrotizing inflammation
A 55 year-old man presented with sudden onset of bleeding on defecation and had history of changes in bowel habits, cramping and left lower quadrant discomfort. He was found to be having adenocarcinoma of colon. Which part is affected in such a case? a) Rectum b) Descending colon c) Caecum and ileo caecal valve d) Ascending colon
Locally invasive skin tumor called Rodent ulcer is a) Squamous cell carcinoma b) Basal cell carcinoma c) Sebaceous carcinoma d) Cylindroma
CREST syndrome is associated with a) SLE b) Systemic sclerosis c) Sjogren syndrome d) Rheumatoid arthritis
A 60-year-old man, who is a chain-smoker had cough and weight loss since 3 months. Physical examination shows clubbing of the fingers. A chest radiograph shows no hilar adenopathy, but there is cavitation within a 3-cm lesion near the right hilum. Laboratory tests show mild anaemia and hypercalcemia. Bronchoscopy shows a lesion almost occluding the right main bronchus. What is the most probable neoplasm? a) Adenocarcinoma in situ b) Squamous cell carcinoma c) Large cell anaplastic carcinoma d) Metastatic renal cell carcinoma
Not a stain for Amyloid is a) Congo red b) Methyl violet c) Triphenyl tetrazolium chloride d) Thioflavin T
Enzyme which prevents cell ageing a) Catalase b) Superoxide dismutase c) Metalloproteinase d) Telomerase
A 34-year-old woman sustained trauma to her right breast. Initially, there was a 3-cm contusion beneath the skin that resolved within 3 weeks, but she then felt a firm, painless lump that persisted below the site of the bruise 1 month later. What is the most likely diagnosis for this lump? a) Abscess b) Fat necrosis c) Fibroadenoma d) Sclerosing adenosis
Classic perivascular structures seen in testicular yolk sac tumours are known as: a) Schiller -Duval bodies b) Call—Exner bodies c) Michaelis-Guttmann bodies d) Russel bodies
Identify the misnomer a) chondroma b) Papilloma c) Seminoma d) Lymphangioma
Not a Sex cord tumour of ovary is a) Granulosa cell tumour b) Dysgerminoma c) Thecoma d) Leydig cell tumour
Not a cause of oedema is a) Increased hydrostatic pressure b) Increased plasma oncotic pressure c) Lymphatic obstruction d) Sodium retention
Amyloidosis results from abnormal folding of proteins, which are insoluble, aggregate, and deposit as: a) Fibrils in extracellular tissues b) Intracellular deposits c) Intranuclear inclusions d) In the meninges
A 76-year-old man has a slowly enlarging nodule on his right eyelid for 4 years. On physical examination, there is a 0.3-cm pearly nodule on the upper eyelid. The lesion is excised, with wider margins removed taking care to preserve the eyelid. The microscopic appearance of the lesion shows dark tumor cells arranged in nests having peripheral palisading. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) Actinic keratosis b) Basal cell carcinoma c) Dermatofibroma d) Malignant melanoma
The most frequent association of squamous cell carcinoma penis is with a) HPV type 6 b) HPV type 11 c) HPV type 44 d) HPV type 16
Rarest site for tumor metastasis is a) Bone b) Lung c) Liver d) Skeletal muscle
Classify Tumours of Large Intestine. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and morphology of Colonic Cancer.
Define Necrosis. Discuss in detail about different types of Necrosis with suitable examples.
A 8 year old boy was admitted with history of puffiness of face and passing of red coloured urine, following upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks earlier. Urine examination showed moderated proteinuria and haematuria. a. What is your probable diagnosis? b. Describe the etiopathogenesis of that condition. c. Give the morphology of the organ affected. d. List the investigations that you would do to confirm diagnosis.
Classify Tumours of Bone. Describe gross and microscopy of Osteosarcoma.
Define Amyloidosis. Explain the gross and microscopic features of the organs involved in secondary Amyloidosis with its staining reactions.
Define and classify Pneumonia. Discuss the pathology and complications of Lobar Pneumonia.
Define and Classify of Leukaemia. Discuss the Chromosomal abnormality and lab findings in Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia.
A 2-year-old child was brought Paediatric outpatient with history of failure to thrive. O/E child is Anaemic with mongoloid face, i.e. with Malar Eminence, Frontal bossing, X-ray skull shows hair on end appearance, moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. What is your provisional diagnosis? Discuss about pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of this condition.
Classify Cirrhosis. Describe the pathogenesis and pathology of Alcoholic Cirrhosis.
Classify Haemolytic Anaemia. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of Haemolytic Anaemia.
Discuss about pathological Calcification.
Discuss the pathology of Dysgerminoma.
Complications of Myocardial Infarction.
Describe Gaucher’s Disease.
Special stains used to demonstrate Amyloid.
Describe the pathogenesis of Barett’s Oesophagus.
Kidney changes in Diabetes Mellitus.
Etiopathogenesis of Thrombus.
Nephrotic Syndrome.
Classify Hodgkin’s disease. Add a note on Nodular Sclerosis.
Neimann Pick disease.
WHO classification of AML.
Renal changes in Diabetes.
Discuss gross and microscopy of Phyllodes Tumour.
Choriocarcinoma.
Ochronosis.
Discuss the pathology of Pheochromocytoma.
Mycetoma.
Write the morphology of Osteosarcoma.
Aplastic Anaemia.
Osteoclastoma.
Mallory Weiss Syndrome.
Three types of Necrosis with examples.
Enumerate risk factors of Carcinoma Cervix.
Enumerate the causes of Cryptorchidism.
Caisson’s Disease.
MacCallum Plaques.
Classify Thyroid tumour.
Hyper segmented Neutrophil.
Pyogenic Osteomyelitis.
Three Opportunistic infections in HIV infection.
CSF in Pyogenic Meningitis.
Enumerate any three Testicular Tumours.
Morphology of Megaloblast.
Microscopy of Rhinosporidiosis.
Aschoff’s Body.
Hyperparathyroidism.
Negri bodies.
Define and enumerate the causes of Aneurysms.
Enumerate anticoagulants in Haematology.
Granuloma.
Indications of Semen Analysis.
Bone marrow picture in B12 deficiency.
Morphology of Warthin’s Tumour.
Teratoma.
Rickets.
CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis.
Fate of thrombus
Emphysema.
Ghon’s complex.
Exfoliative cytology.
Bone marrow findings in megaloblastic anemia.
Pap smear
Linitis plastica.
Bombay blood group.
Bence-Jones protein
Dystrophic Calcification.
Metaplasia.
Berry aneurysm.
Gaucher’s disease
Microscopic picture of Malignant Melanoma.
Virchow’s triad
Barr body
Krukenberg tumor
Advantages of fine needle aspiration cytology
Packed cell volume.
Complications of bronchiectasis.
Philadelphia chromosome
Pleomorphic adenoma.
Stages of E.S.R
Prognostic factors in breast cancer.
Red cell indices
Blood transfusion reaction
Uses of Buffy coat
Complications of cirrhosis
Phyllodes tumor.
Pheochromocytoma.
Indications for bone marrow aspiration
Cholelithiasis.
Mention types of renal stones.
Enumerate the causes of thrombocytopenia.
Define Metaplasia with examples
Carcinoid tumor
Differences in CSF findings between pyogenic and Tuberculous meningitis
Morphology of caseous necrosis
Classification of cirrhosis of liver
Draw labelled diagram of fatty liver.
Sputum findings in Bronchial asthma.
Discuss any two tests for proteinuria.
Classify gall stones
Name three endogenous pigments
Labelled microscopic diagram of Osteoclastoma
Arthus reaction.
Malignant Nephrosclerosis.
Gout
List any three tumour suppressor genes.
Carcinoid syndrome.
Cytochemical stains used in Acute leukemia.
Blood transfusion transmitted diseases.
Multicystic renal dysplasia
Fate of primary tuberculosis
Write a note on Glioblastoma multiforme
Microscopic findings of Hashimotos thyroiditis with labelled diagram.
Name four brain tumors
Acute respiratory distress syndrome.
Name three complications of Falciparum malaria.
List three autosomal dominat disorders.
Microscopy of neuroblastoma.
Write three morphological features of urothelial carcinoma of urinary bladder
Define and classify necrosis.
Tumour markers of carcinoma breast.
Peripheral smear and bone marrow findings in Aplastic anemia
Stains for amyloidosis.
Morphological forms of Bronchiectasis
Three causes of splenomegaly.
What is exfoliative cytology?
Qualitative platelet defects.
Menton three conditions associated with Helicobacter pylori.
Name three causes of massive splenomegaly
Morphology of myocardial infarction
Components of Virchow’s triad
Patent ductus arteriosus
Advantages of FNAC
Give suitable examples for type II hypersensitivity reaction
Microscopic features of Granulosa cell tumor of ovary.
Morphology of Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma
Describe the morphology of Basal cell carcinoma of skin
Enumerate risk factors for Pneumoconiosis.
Morphology of pleomorphic adenoma.
Tuberculoid leprosy.
Three stains used to demonstrate Fat.
Mention six childhood tumors.
Name the tumors caused by Epstein-Barr virus
Psammoma bodies.
Mention three causes of metastatic calcification.
Name two fixatives and two stains used in cytology
Morphology of cystic teratoma of ovary
Three types of renal cell carcinoma.
Name three indications of bone marrow examination
Simple cystic hyperplasia of Endometrium.
Enumerate the Romanoswsky group of stains
Morphology of chronic cholecystitis
Risk factors of carcinoma breast
Auto antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus
Consequenses and complications of myocardial infarction
Morphological pattern of pericarditis.
Barr bodies.
Definition and morphology of Leukoplakia.
Three important prognostic factors of breast carcinoma
Causes for Fatty liver.
Three causes for massive spleenomegaly.
Name three conditions with raised ESR
Name three health hazards of chronic alcoholism.
List three causes of increased ESR.
Anticoagulants used for coagulation studies
Cerebral malaria.
Pagets disease of Bone.
List three anticoagulants.
Morphology of basal cell carcinoma.
Enumerate the glial neoplasms of brain
Name the transfusion transmitted diseases
Define granuloma and draw a neat diagram.
Complications of atherosclerosis.
Enumerate the conditions that cause COPD.
Three central nervous system tumours.
What are the six causes of proteinuria?
Enumerate the blood products available for transfusion.
Morphology of Ewings sarcoma.
List the causes of neutrophilia.
Give three examples of surface epithelial tumours of ovary
Histopathologic types of carcinoma lung
Microscopy of pleomorphic adenoma
Features of anaplasia
Hyaline membrane disease
Microscopy of malignant melanoma
Indication for semen analysis
Principle of estimation of hemoglobin by Cyanmethemoglobin method
Cervical carcinoma in situ
Cardiac vegetations
Microscopic findings in papillary carcinoma thyroid.
Causes of hydronephrosis
Define chemotaxis. Name two chemotactic agents
Primary wound healing
Name the pre blood transfusion screening tests done in Blood Bank.
List three cell cycle regulators.
Mention the different methods of hemoglobin estimation.
Barretts esophagus.
Aneurysmal bone cyst.
Warthin’s tumour
Name three indications for bone marrow aspiration
Gynecomastia
Chocolate cyst.
Cross matching of blood
List six examples for metaplasia
Microscopy of squamous cell carcinoma of skin.
What is nephrotic syndrome? Name the commonest cause in children
What are Supra vital stains? Give examples
Define microalbuminuria and what is its significance?
Morphology of iodine deficiency goiter
Cushing’s syndrome
Anticoagulants used in hematology lab
Microscopic features of squamous cell carcinoma.
Name the causes of increased and decreased ESR
Describe the morphology of pleomorphic adenoma
Name three complications of portal hypertension.
Teratoma ovary.
Morphological types of Hodgkins lymphoma.
What is Bence Jones protein and its cause in urine.
List three components of Virchow’s triad.
List the causes of hematuria.
Chemokines.
Gross features of Seminoma.
Sago spleen.
Oligodendroglioma.
Diabetic kidney
Urinary cast
Microscopic features of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
Liver abscess
Amyloid spleen.
Write about any three red blood indices
Labelled microscopic diagram of Hodgkins lymphoma.
Direct Coombs test
Microscopy of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Name four causes of cirrhosis liver
Labelled microscopic diagram of osteosarcoma
Name the most commonly used anticoagulants in hematology
Microscopy of amoebic colitis
Causes for leucopenia
Morphology of Giant cell tumor of bone
Describe the morphology of Bronchiectasis
Microscopic findings in Crohn’s disease.
Name the pigmented lesions of the skin
Auer rods.
Peripheral smear findings in accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukemia
Name three Arachidonic acid metabolites.
Mention three haemoparasite.
Bence jones proteins
Microscopic picture of Pleomorphic adenoma of salivary gland.
Mention cardinal signs of inflammation.
Microscopic picture of Adenomyosis.
List the complications associated with lung cancer
What is Frozen section? Mention its advantages
CSF findings in tubercular meningitis.
Microscopic appearance of Papillary carcinoma thyroid
Tophi
Enumerate the types of necrosis with examples
Draw a labelled diagram of an example of acute inflammation.
Name three causes for massive splenomegaly.
Anticoagulants used for ESR estimation
Enumerate the stages of pneumonia
CSF examination in viral meningitis
Complications of Lobar pneumonia
Morphology of alcoholic liver disease
Microscopy of osteoclastoma.
Name the fixatives used in histopathology and cytology
List the types of Gall stone and write three complications
Biochemical markers available for Myocardial Infarction.
Paraneoplastic syndromes of small cell carcinoma of the lung
Microscopic diagrams of malignant melanoma.
Mandatory serological test in screening of blood donors
Define infarction with four example.
Mention Six screening tests for blood donation.
Enumerate the conditions of raised ESR.
Three causes of target cells in peripheral smear.
Verocay bodies.
Mention three hemoparasites.
Pleomorphic adenoma of salivary glands
Types of Reed Sternberg Cells
L.E Cell
Draw peripheral smear picture of Megaloblastic anaemia.
Microscopic features of Osteosarcoma.
Precancerous conditions of GIT
Three precancerous lesions of skin.
What is ESR? Enumerate four causes of increase ESR
List the causes associated with variation in urine specific gravity
Being prostatic hyperplasia.
Principle of Sickling test
Microscopy of atherosclerosis
M protein in multiple myeloma
Morphology of papillary carcinoma thyroid
Labelled microscopic diagram of Schwannoma
Indications for FNAC and its pitfalls
Pyogenic meningitis
Tuberculous Osteomyelitis
Pernicious anemia
Enzyme levels in acute myocardial infarction.
Causes and morphology of Nutmeg liver
Renal complications of diabetes mellitus
Labelled microscopic diagram of Warthin’s tumor.
Paget disease of breast
Three microscopic subtypes of Osteosarcoma.
Causes of proteinuria.
Immediate complications of blood transfusion
Three beneficial effects of Edema and why?
Mention three causes of Neutropenia.
Enumerate neoplasms found in patients with HIV infection.
Mention three causes of increased ESR.
Name three thyroid malignancies.
Principle of benedicts test and its advantages
Causes of Thrombocytopenia.
Contracted kidney
List the manifestations of syphilis.
Complications of Brain tumor.
Name special stains for Amyloid.
Fibroadenoma of breast
Define Paraneoplastic syndromes with examples
Precancerous lesions of esophagus
Name the conditions where reticulocyte count increases
Pagets disease of bone – morphology
Systemic causes for delayed wound healing
Type II Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome
Mention two uses of trisodium citrate as an anticoagulant in hematology.
Describe the morphology of Phyllodes tumour of breast
Morphological types of Cardiomyopathies.
Hazards of ultraviolet rays radiation.
Mention three indications for bone marrow aspiration.
Name the available blood components
Mention three common opportunistic infections in AIDS.
Bowens disease
List three gestational trophoblastic diseases.
Laboratory diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia
Causes of increased and decreased specific gravity of urine
Morphology of Lobar Pneumonia
Microscopy of seminoma
Uses of packed cell volume
LE cell
Osteitis fibrosa cystica
Complications of Bronchogenic carcinoma.
Indication for bone marrow aspiration and why?
List the crystals found in acidic urine.
Three disadvantages of Sahli’s Hb estimation
Name the tumors of the lung.
Microscopy of papillary carcinoma thyroid.
Urinometer
Microscopic diagram of Adenocarcinoma of colon.
Renal function tests.
Gross and microscopy of hepatocellular carcinoma
Enumerate the conditions where PCV is altered.
Differences between nephritic and nephrotic syndrome
Von Recklinghausen’s disease
Mention the tests done in routine urine examination.
Cryptorchidism and its complications
Describe the pathogenesis, gross, microscopy and complications of gastric ulcer.
Classify lung tumors. Describe etiopathogenesis, morphology of Bronchogenic carcinoma.
Define Cirrhosis. Classify and describe the pathology and complications of alcoholic liver cirrhosis.
A 45 year old Male presented with few episodes of hematemesis. History revealed heavy alcohol consumption for the past 10 years. Clinical examination shows ascites and spleenomegaly. a) What is the probable diagnosis and why? b) Describe in detail about etiopathogenesis and its complications.
60 year old male presented with complaints of pedal edema and exertional dyspnoea. On investigation his Hemoglobin was 3.5 g/dl and he had raised brain natriuretic peptide. Blood pressure was 90/50 mm of Hg and heart rate was 60 bpm. He is not a diabetic or hypertensive. He was diagnosed with congestive heart failure. a) List the types of edema b) Identify the type of edema in the above clinical history c) Describe the pathophysiology, clinical features and consequences of this condition
A 12 year boy presented with sudden onset of fever and vomiting with abdominal pain. On palpation there is tenderness at MC Burney’s point a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) Define inflammation? Enumerate cellular events of inflammation c) Outcomes of acute inflammation
Classify shock. Discuss in detail the etiopathogenesis of septic shock.
Define inflammation. Mention the types of inflammation and describe the vascular events in inflammation.
Describe the pathogenesis, pathology of Leprosy. Add a note on the laboratory diagnosis.
65 year old male, known case of interstitial lung disease and pulmonary hypertension is brought to the emergency department with decreased urine output and altered sensorium. On examination pulse is 123 beats/min, BP- 96/60 mmhg, RR-28cycles/min with cold extremities. a. What is the probable clinical diagnosis? b. Discuss the pathogenesis and various organ changes. c. Enumerate the laboratory findings.
40 year police constable gives history of epigastric pain and it is relieved after eating certain food, for the last six months. Now he is presenting with dark coloured stools. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the etiology, pathogenesis and microscopic feature of this condition c) Write its complications
Define thrombosis. Discuss Virchow’s triad and enlist the fate of thrombus.
A 50 year male with history of chronic alcohol consumption, presented with distended abdomen. Ultrasound scan show reduced size of liver a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the pathogenesis and progression of this condition c) Complications of this condition
A middle-aged female presented with migratory polyarthritis, weak heart sound, tachycardia, pericardial friction rub following recurrent attacks of Pharyngitis. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the pathophysiology and morphology of this condition. c) List the complications associated with this condition
a) Define Necrosis b) Describe the various types of necrosis with suitable examples c) How does it differ from Apoptosis?
10 year old male presented with pain abdomen, fever and vomiting of one day duration. On examination there is tenderness over Mcburney’s point. Ultrasound examination of the abdomen showed evidence of dilated appendix. a) What type of inflammation is seen in this condition? b) Discuss the cellular events occurring in this condition c) List the chemical mediators that facilitate the cellular events
50 year female presented with lump breast on the right side. On examination the lump measured 5 cm in size with restricted mobility. There was nipple retraction with axillary lymphadenopathy. a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) Write the classification, morphology and microscopy of the lesion c) Write the prognostic markers of the lesion.
Discuss the etiology, pathology and complications of Nephrotic syndrome.
Define thrombosis. Explain in detail about pathogenesis of thrombosis. Add a note on fate of thrombus
30-year female admitted to emergency with high grade fever, hypotension, weak, rapid pulse, tachypnea and cold, clammy, cyanotic skin. Blood culture showed gram negative bacteria. She succumbed due to dysfunction in multiple organs. a) What is the likely diagnosis? b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of this condition. c) Describe the morphology of organs involved.
20 year female was admitted with high grade fever and hypotension. Blood culture showed gram negative bacteria. She died due to multi-organ failure. a) What is the diagnosis? b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of the condition c) Describe the morphological changes of lung and kidney in this disease
A 65 year old female, presented with bloody discharge from nipple and palpable lump 3x2cm. Mammogram revealed complex lesion with calcification. a. What is the probable diagnosis and why? b. Describe etiopathology of this condition. c. Mention various histological subtypes of this disease.
Define Shock. Enumerate the types of shock and discuss in detail the pathogenesis of Septic Shock.
70 year old male, complaints of loss of appetite and weight loss since 6 months. Clinical examination revealed a mass palpable in the epigastric region. Upper GI endoscopy showed an ulceroproliferative growth in lesser curvature of stomach a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe etiopathogenesis and morphology of this condition
Describe the etiopathogenesis and lab diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia
a) Classify Bone tumors b) Discuss the pathogenesis and clinicopathologic features of osteosarcoma
60 year old chronic alcoholic reports to emergency room with one bout of hematemesis. On examination the patient is drowsy and not oriented. Icterus is present. Per abdominal examination reveals Ascites. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the gross and microscopy of the organ involved c) List the complications of the above condition
Classify ovarian neoplasms. Describe serous tumors of ovary in detail.
40 year old farmer admitted to the hospital with high fever. He gives history of an injury to his left leg resulting in an ulcer 15 days ago. On examination his pulse is 110/min, blood pressure is 70/50 mmHg a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the stages of this condition c) Discuss the pathophysiology of the above condition
Describe the etiopathogenesis and morphological features of colorectal carcinoma
Describe the etiopathogenesis, morphological changes and lab diagnosis of AIDS
50 year male admitted with complaints of epigastic pain with nausea and vomiting. Pain is relived after food or by ingestion of alkali. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the etiopathogenesis of the condition c) Describe the gross and microscopy of the lesion
Define neoplasia. Differences between benign and malignant tumors. Add a note on chemical Carcinogens.
Describe the etiopathogenesis and morphology of Carcinoma Stomach.
A 55 year old male patient presented with retrosternal pain radiating to left arm, dyspnoea and sweating of sudden onset. Patient is a known smoker for the last 20 years a) What is the provisional diagnosis? b) Write in detail about the morphological changes of the organ involved c) Write the biochemical markers indicative of the condition d) Mention the complications of the disease
A 45 year old multiparous female, presented with complication of post-coital bleeding and foul smelling white discharge per vagina. On per speculum examination growth bleeds on touch noted. a. What is the probable diagnosis and why? b. Discuss the risk factors and etiopathogenesis. c. Add a note on screening test for the above condition.
Describe the etiopathogenesis, pathology and complications of Gastric carcinoma.
Describe etiopathogenesis of Nephritic Syndrome. Explain the morphological features and complications of post infectious Glomerulonephritis.
30 year old male on pure vegetarian diet presents with restlessness, fatigue, dizziness, tingling and numbness in his legs. On routine blood evaluation his hemoglobin was found to be 7gms/dl and MCV of 110 fl. Patient was also found to have reticulocytopenia a. What is the most probable diagnosis? b. Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, peripheral smear and bone marrow findings of Megaloblastic anemia.
A 20 year male patient presented with swelling of both knees and pain for the past one week. He gives history of similar episodes earlier. He also gives history of excessive bleeding after minor injuries. His maternal uncle has similar complaints and has been treated by repeated blood transfusions following excessive bleeding episodes a) What are the probable differential diagnosis? b) What are the laboratory investigations required for the diagnosis? c) What is the etiopathogenesis of these disorders? d) How will you make the final specific diagnosis?
Classify acute leukemia. Discuss acute myeloid leukemia and its sub types.
Enumerate the causes of thrombocytopenia and discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic Purpura.
Describe the laboratory diagnosis of Acute myeloid leukemia.
28 year old female presented with history of menorrhagia. She gives history of fever 15days back. On examination pallor and petechiae present. No splenomegaly. CBC reveals Hemoglobin- 7.6 gm/dl, WBC count- 6000 cells/cumm, Platelet- 28,000/cumm. a. What is the clinical diagnosis and why? b. Discuss the etiopathogenesis of the above condition c. Enumerate the lab findings investigations
60 year female presented with right flank pain and weight loss with fatigue for 3 month duration. Ultrasound scan shows renal mass in the upper pole measuring 4.3 x 4 cm. urine microscopy of the patient shows plenty of RBCs. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the pathogenesis and microscopic variants of the disease c) Add a note on spread of this disease
A chronic smoker with history of exertional dyspnoea and weight loss, died of road accident. On autopsy his both lungs is voluminous with rib markings on its surface. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe its different types c) What are its complications
A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman presented with hard lump of 8x8 cm in the lower outer quadrant of left breast. Fine needle aspiration cytology showed groups and clusters of ductal epithelial cells with cellular and nuclear atypia. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Discuss the morphology and list the types of the above condition. c) Enumerate the prognostic factors of the disease.
a) Define Anemia b) Classify anemias according to aetiology c) Discuss the morphology and lab diagnosis of Iron deficiency anemia
13 year old male has sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and cramping accompanied by chest pain, non productive cough, pain in the bones of the hand and fever. Physical examination revealed that his temperature is 39C and pulse rate is 110/min. He has diffuse abdominal tenderness and spleenomegaly. Lab studies show haematocrit of 18% and peripheral smear showed sickle shaped cells. X ray chest showed bilateral pulmonary infiltrates a) Discuss the pathogenesis of the sudden onset symptoms in the child b) Discuss the laboratory investigations relevant to the history provided
35 year old female presents with history of breathlessness and palpitations on exertion since 6 months. Past history recurrent sore throat during childhood. On examination a mild diastolic murmur in the mitral area. a) What is the diagnosis? b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of the condition c) Describe the morphologic features of the organ involved
Describe the etiopathogenesis, morphology and complications of Infective endocarditis.
Classify ovarian tumours. Describe the gross and microscopy of mature cystic teratoma of ovary.
Define Apoptosis and give examples. Describe the mechanism of apoptosis
30-year male vegetarian and chronic gastritis patient was evaluated for the pallor, paresthesia of extremities. a) What is the type of anemia? b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis and pathology associated with this condition c) Add a note on laboratory investigations in the work up of this patient.
45 year old female presents to OPD with easy fatigability and breathlessness from two months. She complains of menorrhagia since 6 months. On examination she has pallor and koilonychia a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the pheripheral smear and bone marrow findings in this case c) Discuss RBC indices with reference to this case
Describe etiopathogenesis of Coronary Atherosclerosis. Explain morphology of heart in Myocardial Infarction.
Define anemia. Classify anemia. Write in detail about megaloblastic anemia.
What is myocardial infarction? Discuss the etiopathogenesis with morphology. Add note on laboratory diagnosis
Describe the cellular and vascular events in acute inflammation
a) Discuss the aetiopathogenesis of carcinoma colon b) Mention the significance of familiar Adenomatous polyposis c) Discuss the morphology of carcinoma rectum
55 year old male presented history of chest pain of acute onset. Pain radiating to left shoulder and arm. ECG shows ST segment, elevation and T wave inversion. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the etiopathogenesis of this condition c) What are the immediate complications?
Classify Hemolytic anemias. Discuss Sickle cell anemia.
Write the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus. Classify diabetes mellitus. Describe the pathogenesis for type II DM.
3 years old female child admitted to paediatric ward with long history of pallor and passing high coloured urine. There is a history of consanguineous marriage among parents. On examination child has pallor, stunted growth, icterus and enlarged spleen. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Describe the molecular pathogenesis of this condition c) Discuss the lab diagnosis of the above condition
Classification and microscopic features of acute glomerulonephritis
Define Necrosis. Describe the different types of necrosis in detail
5 year old male child complaints of facial puffiness and swelling of lower limbs. Urine examination is positive for protein. a) What is your diagnosis? b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis in this condition c) Discuss the urinary and biochemical characteristics of this condition
Define Leukemia. Write a note on FAB classification of acute myeloid Leukemias. Add a note on acute myeloid leukemia.
Describe the macroscopic and microscopic appearances of Myocardial infract. Briefly discuss the laboratory diagnosis.
A 60 year old man developed loss of weight, upper abdominal pain, anorexia and hematemesis in the last three months. An endoscopy was done which revealed an exophytic mass in the gastric region. a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis c) Describe in detail the morphology of the lesion d) Describe the mode of spread
Differences between ulcerative colitis and Crohns disease.
Basal cell carcinoma.
Schwannoma.
papillary carcinoma of thyroid
Medulloblastoma.
Gall stones.
3. Chemical Carcinogenesis.
Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia.
Klinefelter syndrome.
Cryptorchidism
Endometriosis
Pathogenesis of Atherosclerosis
1. Opportunistic infections in AIDS
Semen analysis
Seminoma.
Chronic pyelonephritis.
Pathological calcification.
Sickle cell anemia
Chemotaxis
Hashimotos thyroiditis.
Turner syndrome
Coomb’s test.
1. Differences between necrosis and apoptosis.
Malignant melanoma
Septic shock
2. Mechanism of metastasis.
3. Lepromatous leprosy
Pathogenesis of Amyloidosis
Medullary carcinoma of Thyroid.
Germ cell tumours of Testis.
Benign prostastic hyperplasia
Bronchial asthma
Meningioma.
Type IV hypersensitivity
Type I hypersensitivity.
Pathogenesis of Type I Diabetes Mellitus.
Tumor markers
Seminoma Testis
Warthin’s tumor
Endometrial hyperplasia
Classification of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Viral carcinogenesis.
Indications of Bone marrow aspiration
Tetralogy of Fallot.
Neuroblastoma.
CSF findings in viral meningitis.
Complications of Blood transfusion.
Aplastic anemia
Morphology of heart in Rheumatic Heart Disease.
Etiopathogenesis of Bronchial Asthma.
Discuss in brief classification of Leprosy.
Causes of fatty liver.
Describe the various vascular events involved in acute inflammation.
1. Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
Define and discuss pathogenesis of Metaplasia with examples.
1. Microscopic variants of Hodgkins Lymphoma.
1. Squamous intraepithelial lesions of the uterine cervix.
Peptic ulcer disease
Gross and microscopy of myocardial infarction.
Laboratory diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus
Early and late complications of Diabetes Mellitus
Define necrosis and enumerate the types of necrosis with one example each.
Osteogenic sarcoma
1. Tabulate differences between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis
1. Pathologic calcification
Renal cell carcinoma
1. Classify germ cell tumours of ovary. Write a note on dysgerminoma.
Free radicals in cell injury
1. Describe the etiology and morphology of chronic Pyelonephritis
Difference between Nephrotic versus Nephritic Syndrome.
Pathogenesis and complications of Diabetes Mellitus.
2. Vascular changes in Acute inflammation.
2. Define Amyloidosis? Write the physical and chemical nature of Amyloid and note on special stains
Discuss reversible and irreversible cell injury with example.
Cystic fibrosis
Discuss antibody mediated hypersensitivity with examples.
Endogenous pigments.
2. Gross and microscopic features and Acute post infectious Glomerulo nephritis.
Discuss the gross, microscopy, X ray appearance of Osteoclastoma
2. Enumerate the steps in the investigations of the transfusion reaction.
2. Mature teratoma of ovary.
Criteria for blood donor screening
Glial tumors of brain
2. Discuss pathogenesis and morphology of Bronchiectasis
2. Arachidonic acid metabolites
Etiopathogenesis of atherosclerosis
Physical examination of urine
2. Renal calculi.
Granulomatous inflammation
2. Classify testicular tumours and write about the morphology of Seminoma
Etiopathology of Hepatocellular carcinoma.
Classify germ cell tumors of ovary and describe the morphology of any one.
3. Describe the morphology of different types of infarcts with examples
Discuss chemical carcinogenesis.
Vitamin A deficiency
Infraction
Define Hyperplasia. Briefly discuss the pathogenesis
Chronic venous congestion of Liver.
3. Enumerate etiology and types of cardiomyopathies.
Describe the etiopathogenesis and morphological types of Emphysema
Amyloidosis
3. Define necrosis. Discuss various types of necrosis with examples.
3. Gall bladder calculi.
Causes of acute pancreatitis.
Cellular events of acute inflammation
Describe the sequential steps in cutaneous wound healing.
3. Classification of amyloidosis.
Morphological types of Emphysema.
Mediators of Inflammation
Graves disease
3. Chronic glomerulonephritis
Wound healing by secondary intention. Mention the factors influencing wound healing.
Define thrombosis and write the fate of thrombosis
Mechanism of Glomerular injury
3. List the malignant tumours of thyroid and describe papillary carcinoma of thyroid
Ulcerative colitis
Discuss different methods of blood grouping.
Peripheral smear and bone marrow findings in megaloblastic anemia
Write the cerebrospinal fluid findings in Pyogenic and Viral Meningitis.
Describe urinary Casts with a neat diagram.
Carcinoma penis.
Histology of Lepromatous leprosy.
Describe the pathogenesis and morphological findings in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Pathogenesis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Microscopic changes in diabetic nephropathy.
What is a granuloma? Enumerate the types with examples
List the actions of Arachidonic acid metabolites in inflammation.
Fatty liver.
Gaucher disease
CSF finding in bacterial and viral meningitis
Opportunistic infections in HIV infection
Write short notes on Asbestosis.
Discuss the stages in the evolution of Lobar pneumonia and list the complications
Fibrodenoma of breast.
Morphology of renal cell carcinoma.
Describe different types of cellular adaptations to stress with examples
Laboratory diagnosis in Hemophilia.
List the difference between leukemoid reaction and chronic myeloid leukemia.
Morphological types of carcinoma cervix.
Describe the etiopathogenesis and complications of Acute Pyelonephritis
Hereditary spherocytosis
Morphology of Meningioma
Difference between reversible and irreversible cell injury
Role of Exfoliative cytology.
Pigments in health and disease
Dysgerminoma.
Define neoplasia and list the differences between benign and malignant tumours.
Morphology of malignant melanoma
Neonatal hepatitis
Infective endocarditis
Routes of metastasis
Gross and microscopy of cirrhosis of Liver.
Etiology and morphological features of carcinoma cervix
Discuss pathogenesis of Type II Diabetes Mellitus.
Chronic Pyelonephritis (CPN).
Thalassemia major.
Type III hypersensitivity reactions with examples
Name four blood group systems. Discuss briefly Bombay blood group.
Demonstration of Amyloid by special stains.
Pathology and laboratory diagnosis of Hereditary spherocytosis
Lobular carcinoma Breast.
Tabulate the differences between exudate and transudate.
Gross and microscopy of Hydatidiform mole.
Describe the morphology of acute and chronic hepatitis. Add a note on outcome of chronic hepatitis
Oncogenes
Serum markers in viral hepatitis
Classification of ovarian tumors.
Coal workers pneumoconiosis.
Microscopy of Tuberculoid and Lepromatous leprosy.
Mechanism of invasion and metastasis.
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
Warthins tumor
Pneumoconiosis
Etiology and pathogenesis of pyogenic osteomyelitis
Histological subtypes of Osteogenic sarcoma.
Barrett’s esophagus
Pathogenesis and morphology of Hashimotos thyroiditis.
Discuss various stains for amyloid.
Define and classify anaemia according to aetiology
Vascular events in acute inflammation.
Tabulate the difference between leukemoid reaction and chronic myeloid leukemia.
Peripheral blood findings in Iron deficiency anemia.
Benign fibroepithelial neoplasms of Breast.
Chemical mediators of inflammation
Etiopathogenesis of Septic shock.
Paget disease of bone
Hashimoto thyroiditis.
Opportunistic infection associated with AIDS.
Multiple myeloma
Morphology of Osteosarcoma.
Pathogenesis of Syphilis
Vitamin D deficiency
Emphysema – types and morphology
What is ESR? What are the factors influencing ESR?
Phylloides tumor
Fracture healing
Wilm’s tumor.
Write a note on Leukemoid reaction.
Pathogenesis and pathology of Hashimoto thyroiditis
Discuss the etiology, serum markers and outcome of chronic active hepatitis
Explain various cardiac vegetations with diagram.
Describe the modes of spread of malignant neoplasms with examples
Discuss sickle cell anemia.
Role of p53 in carcinogenesis.
Classify CNS tumors.
Pathogenesis of simple and multinodular goiter.
Kleinfelter syndrome
Define hypertrophy. Discuss the types of hypertrophy with their mechanism.
Aneurysms.
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Discuss the pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia.
Describe the wound healing by primary intention.
Peripheral blood picture and laboratory findings in Iron deficiency anemia.
What is cirrhosis of liver? Describe morphology
Acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Discuss phagocytosis
Blood picture and bone marrow picture in chronic myeloid leukemia
Polyps of large intestine.
Types and morphology of Renal cell carcinoma
Premalignant conditions of the skin
Morphology of Osteomyelitis.
Casts in urine
Melanoma.
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Squamous cell carcinoma of skin
Gastric carcinoma – morphology
Osteoarthritis
Discuss various hemoparasites. Add a note on complication of malaria
Pathogenesis of Rheumatoid arthritis
Describe features of Hodgkins lymphoma in gross and microscopy.
Classify bone tumors.
Discuss etiopathogenesis of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia.
Vit ‘A’ deficiency.
Hemophilia A
Discuss the etiology and pathogenesis of Hyperthyroidism.
Pathogenesis of type II diabetes mellitus with late complications
Discuss urine microscopic findings under the following subheads. a) Crystals b) Cast c) Micro organisms
Carcinoma cervix – aetiopathogenesis and morphology
Red cell indices and their normal values
Classification of Germ cell tumors of testis.
Paraneoplastic syndromes
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Factors affecting wound healing
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
Hydatidiform mole.
Osteosarcoma
Prognostic factors of carcinoma breast
Differences between tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy
Premalignant lesions of penis
Define neoplasia. Discuss chemical carcinogenesis
Ewing’s sarcoma
Leukemoid reaction
Differences between benign and malignant tumors
Pathogenesis of Septic Shock.
Microbial carcinogenesis.
Role of p53 gene in tumor suppression.
Metastatic calcification
Renal lesions in Diabetes Mellitus
Aortic dissection
ESR
Define metaplasia and give two examples.
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).
Hemophilia B.
Types of necrosis
What is sequestrum.
Methods of PCV estimation
Types of Emphysema
Haemophilia A
Retinoblastoma.
25 year old female presented with acute abdominal pain. On laparotomy the appendix was red and swollen. a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) Discuss the vascular events of the underlying pathology
Define acute inflammation. Discuss vascular changes and cellular events of acute inflammation. Write two beneficial effect of acute inflammation.
A 60-year-old male develops fatiguability, weakness, weight loss and a dragging sensation in the abdomen. Blood examination reveals a total count exceeding 100,000 cells /cu mm. O/E massive splenomegaly. (a) What is your provisional diagnosis. (b) Describe the peripheral smear and bone marrow findings. (c) Describe the pathogenesis and the further tests to be done.
Discuss aetio-pathogenesis, pathologic lesions, laboratory diagnosis and complications of Rheumatic Heart Disease
A seven-year-old boy presented to the hospital with breathlessness and severe pallor. On examination he had stunted growth, frontal bossing, mild icterus and moderate splenomegaly. History of repeated blood transfusions was present. Investigations revealed Hb- 3gm%, TLC – 5600/cu.mm, platelets – 3.0 lakhs/cu.mm. Peripheral smear showed microcytic hypochromic blood picture with marked anisopoikilocytosis, many target cells and reticulocyte count of 5%. (a) What is the likely diagnosis and why (b) What is the pathogenesis of this condition (c) What are the laboratory investigations needed in such a case to diagnose the disease and the expected results (d) How do you classify this disease based on its clinicohematological profile.
A 50-year-old nulliparous female presents with a hard lesion of the right breast that she had noticed 2 weeks ago. Clinical examination reveals puckering of the overlying skin and retraction of the nipple along with a 3 cm hard mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. 3 hard masses are palpable in the right axilla. On questioning the patient reveals a weight loss of 7kg in the last 2 months. Mammogram reveals a 3.4 cm mass with irregular spiculated margins and increased density compared to the surrounding breast tissue. (a) What is your diagnosis. Justify it (b) What is the gross and histology of this lesion (c) List the major prognostic and predictive markers (d) Discuss the mode of spread of this disease
Define and classify cirrhosis. Discuss the pathology and complications of Alcoholic cirrhosis.
N-myc is a a) Signal transduction factor b) Growth factor c) Growth factor receptor d) Nuclear transcription factor
Ghon focus is associated with a) Syphilis b) Tuberculosis c) Pneumonia d) Chronic bronchitis
Define and classify myeloproliferative neoplasms. Discuss the clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia.
Define emphysema. Enumerate the types of emphysema. Describe the etiopathogenesis of any one of them.
Classify bone tumours. Discuss gross and microscopy of osteogenic sarcoma. Add a note on radiological features.
Define anemia. Classify anemias. Discuss etiopathogenesis and laboratory findings of megaloblastic anemia.
A 30-year-old female presented with history of easy fatiguability, weight loss, recurrent fever and gum bleeding. Clinical examination revealed severe pallor with hepatosplenomegaly. Blood routine examination showed Hb 8gm%, total count- 75000/mm3, platelet count 40000/mm3 a) What is your provisional diagnosis b) Mention the classification systems of the disease and enlist the types c) Describe the peripheral smear and bone marrow findings of the disease
Classify bronchogenic carcinoma. Discuss etiopathogenesis of bronchogenic carcinoma. Write the common clinical complications of bronchogenic carcinoma.
A 49-year-old lady presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. It was about 3cm, firm and immobile. A mammogram done showed stippled calcifications. She underwent FNAC followed by lumpectomy. Gross examination of the specimen showed a 3x2 cm, firm, greyish mass with irregular margins a) What is the most likely diagnosis b) Explain the risk factors and histopathologic features of this condition c) What are the prognostic and predictive factors of this condition
Define Necrosis. Discuss in detail with examples the different types of necrosis. Give two differentiating points between Necrosis and Apoptosis.
Define Emphysema. What are the types of emphysema. Discuss the etiopathogenesis of this condition.
Define inflammation. Discuss cellular events of acute inflammation. Enumerate the morphological variants of acute inflammation.
Define thrombosis. Explain the pathophysiology and morphology of thrombosis. Add a note on the fate of thrombus.
Classify tumors of the testis. Discuss the etiopathogenesis and describe the gross and microscopic picture of the most common malignant tumor of the testis.
A 72year old gentleman with long standing Diabetes mellitus presented with frequent urination and dysuria since a week, followed by fever of 101.8o F. On examination, his face appeared flushed, heart rate was 102/min and BP was 88/60mm Hg. CBC showed neutrophilicleukocytosis. He was started on antibiotics, but his urine output decreased to 50ml/24h by 2nd day. a) What is your provisional diagnosis and cause of death b) Explain the pathogenesis of this condition c) Add a note in the gross and microscopic changes in the kidney in this condition
Define necrosis. Describe the different types of necrosis with examples. How does necrosis differ from apoptosis
A 42-year-old woman, who did not have a medical checkup for many years, noted the onset of post coital bleeding. On examination, she was found to have an ulcerated growth on the anterior lip of cervix. (a) What is the likely diagnosis and why. (b) How could this disease have been detected early. (c) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of this disease. (d) Describe the microscopic types of this lesion.
A 10-year-old female presented with sudden onset of hematuria and oliguria. Urine examination shows presence of RBC, casts and mild proteinuria. a) What is your probable diagnosis b) Discuss etiopathogenesis and classification of the disease c) Mention the morphological features of the target organ d) Laboratory diagnosis of the disease
A 35-year-old male presents with painless enlargement and heaviness of the right testis since 2 months. Ultrasound showed a hypoechoic and homogenous mass in the right testis (a) What are the tumor markers that will help you in the diagnosis (b) How are testicular tumors classified (c) Describe the clinical features and gross and microscopic findings of any one testicular tumor.
A 7-year-old boy presents with puffiness of eyelids, decreased urine output of 6 days duration. Clinical examination reveals generalized edema and mild hypertension. Urine examination reveals numerous RBCs and mild proteinuria. He gives a history of a sore throat 3 weeks ago. A renal biopsy is performed. (a) What is your provisional diagnosis (b) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition (c) What features do you expect to see in the renal biopsy (d) What is the outcome of this disease
Define edema. Discuss the pathophysiologic causes of edema. Describe the features of an exudate
What are the three components of acute inflammation. Describe the mechanism of intracellular destruction of bacteria.
A 60-year-old man presents to the medical OPD with complaints of easy fatiguability, bone pain and decreased urination. On examination, he has pallor. Systemic examination is normal. Hemogram shows Hb- 8gm%, TLC of 6500/mm3 and platelet count of 1,60,000/mm3. The differential leucocyte count is normal. Peripheral smear shows increase in Rouleaux formation. ESR is 110mm/first hour. Serum Creatinine of 3.8gm%. A bone marrow examination was ordered the next day. • What is the most likely possibility in such a situation • What are the findings expected in a bone marrow examination • What are the laboratory investigations you will do to arrive at a diagnosis and what are the expected results • What are the complications of this disease
A 38-year-old pregnant woman with history of multiple, closely spaced pregnancies, develops fatigue, pallor, koilonychia, alopecia, and atrophic changes of the tongue of one-month duration (a) What is your provisional diagnosis (b) Describe the peripheral smear and Bone marrow finding (c) What are the other laboratory investigations to be done for confirming the diagnosis in this patient (d) Describe the pathogenesis and complications of this condition
Define and classify leprosy. Enumerate the differences in pathology in the various types of leprosy. Mention two diagnostic tests in leprosy.
A 36 years old female presented with left breast lump for the last 9 months. On examination a firm lump measuring 5x4.3 cms, in the upper outer quadrant with peau d'orange skin and nipple retraction. Axillary lymph node enlarged noted. a) What is the most probable diagnosis. b) Discuss the routes of metastasis. c) Explain the metastatic cascade.
(a) Define inflammation. (b) Describe the cellular events that take place in acute inflammation. (c) Describe the morphological patterns of acute inflammation.
A 55-year-old female with complaints of foul smelling white discharge per vagina of two-month duration, on PV examination friable small growth noted in the cervix which bleeds on touch. a) What is the provisional clinical diagnosis. b) Name two investigations to confirm the diagnosis. c) Enumerate the risk factors and aetiopathogenisis of this disease
Define shock. Classify shock. Discuss the etiopathogenesis of septic shock. Discuss the different stages of shock.
What are gestational trophoblastic diseases. Design a labelled diagram to depict the origin of these lesions. Discuss the clinical features, morphology, and complications of these conditions.
A 60-year-old male, previously diagnosed with chronic gastritis, presented with weakness, burning sensation on the tongue and numbness of the fingers. On examination he had pallor and patchy red areas on the tongue. His had a haemoglobin of 8gm/dl and MCV of 110fl. a) What is the most likely diagnosis b) What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition c) What are the other laboratory findings seen with this diagnosis
Translocation seen in Burkitt’s lymphoma is a) t(8:14) b) t(9:22) c) t(14:18) d) t(15:17)
Risk factor associated with transitional cell carcinoma of urinary bladder is a) NSAID use b) Chronic smoking c) Chronic Alcoholism d) Urinary tract infections
A 62-year-old cachectic postmenopausal female presented to the Gynaecology clinic with a history of bleeding per vagina. Per speculum examination showed an ulcero- proliferative growth involving the cervix which bleeds on touch along with foul smelling vaginal discharge. a) What is the most probable diagnosis. b) Discuss the aetiopathogenesis of this condition. c) Briefly describe the methods of screening for this lesion.
60 years old male having fever, weight loss presented with painless hematuria, flank pain, palpable mass left renal angle. C.T. scan confirmed a specific organ mass lesion. Regional lymph nodes and renal vein involvement. Chest radiography shows cannon ball secondaries. Answer the following • What is provisional diagnosis • Discuss the etiopathogenesis • Describe the morphology • Mention the various para neoplastic syndromes produced by this lesion
A 50 year old farmer presented with easy fatiguability. On examination- Pallor++, Koilonychia was seen. Stool examination showed ova of ankylostoma duodenale. a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of this condition c) Enumerate the laboratory findings of the same
A 10 year old boy presented with oliguria, hematuria and hypertension. He gave a past history of sore throat two weeks back. a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of this condition c) Add a note on urinary findings
Write the Cellular events of acute inflammation
A 70-year-old woman admitted with worsening anemia and pathological fracture of the Humerus, had an ESR of 120mm in 1 hour. Her peripheral smear showed increased rouleaux formation. X-ray of skull showed multiple punched out osteolytic lesions. a) What is the most probable diagnosis. b) Write briefly on the etiopathogenesis of this disease. c) Enumerate the common laboratory investigations for this disease.
Explain the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, morphologic features and complications of Rheumatic heart disease
A person after 20 minutes of vaccine administration develops generalized pruritus, difficulty in breathing, hypotension and vomiting. a) What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient. b) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition.
A 55-year-old lady presented with progressive fatigue and tiredness for last one month. She also complained of tingling and numbness in the lower limbs. On examination she had pallor and her tongue had a glossy appearance. • What is your diagnosis • What is the cause for neurological symptoms in this condition • What are the peripheral smear and bone marrow findings in this condition
18 year old male was brought to the emergency in an unconscious state following a road traffic accident. On examination, the pulse was weak, and skin cold clammy. Blood pressure 90/50 mm of Hg. X-ray of the leg revealed a fracture of the shaft of right femur . a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) Discuss the pathogenesis of this condition
A 60- year old male presented with history of fever, cough and weight loss since two months. Chest X-ray showed cavitary lesion in the right apical lobe and ESR 120 mm / hr. Answer the following. • What is the provisional diagnosis. • Discuss etiopathogenesis and morphology of the same. • Mention the laboratory investigations.
A two years old female child presented with pallor, growth retardation and history of repeated transfusions. There was malocclusion of jaws with skull X ray showing “hair on end appearance” and hepatosplenomegaly. Answer the following • What is your diagnosis • What is the etiopathogenesis of this condition • What are the peripheral smear findings • What are the bone marrow findings
A 45-year-old lady with menorrhagia for 5-6 months presented with fatigue and loss of appetite. Lab investigations showed Hb - 9gm% and peripheral smear showed small RBCs with enhanced central pallor a) What is the likely diagnosis b) What lab investigations would confirm your diagnosis c) Describe the peripheral smear findings with a labelled diagram d) List other causes that can lead to this condition
A forty-year-old man presented with history of persistent cough and evening rise of temperature over a period of 3 months, with associated loss of appetite and significant loss of weight. Examination revealed matted cervical lymph nodes. A chest X ray done showed cavitation in the apex of the upper lobe of the lung. a) What is your diagnosis b) Describe in detail the etiopathogenesis of this disease. c) Describe the characteristic microscopic features associated with this condition. d) What investigations will help to confirm the diagnosis
Discuss the etiopathogenesis of Atherosclerosis. What are the possible complications that may arise due to the presence of these plaques in different arteries. Draw a labelled diagram depicting the histological appearance of the same.
Define and classify cirrhosis of liver. Discuss pathogenesis, histopathology and complications of alcoholic cirrhosis
Discuss Hepatitis B infection under the following headings:- (a) Clinical features (b) Gross and microscopic changes in liver (c) Complications
(a) Define pneumonia (b) Describe the types, stages, morphology and complications of lobar pneumonia.
A 26 years old female presented with complains of fever and joint pains for last six months. She also gives history of development of skin rashes on exposure to the sunlight. On examination the clinician found a butterfly rash over the face and oral ulcers. Serologic investigations were performed for diagnosis. • What is the diagnosis of this patient • Describe the etiopathogenesis of this disorder • Name any two renal lesions in this disease
A man aged 40 presented to the Medicine clinic with a history of persistent cough with evening rise of temperature over a period of 4 months, with associated loss of appetite and a reduction in weight. Examination revealed matted cervical lymph nodes. An x ray chest done showed a small radiopaque focus in the apex of the upper lobe of right lung. • What is your provisional diagnosis • Describe in detail the pathogenesis of this disease. • Describe the complications associated with this lesion
(a) Define neoplasia. (b) Enumerate the four classes of normal regulatory genes, with one example each, that are the principal targets of genetic damage leading to carcinogenesis. (c) Write a note on how viruses are implicated in carcinogenesis with examples. (d) Tabulate the salient differences between benign and malignant tumors.
(a) Discuss the primary abnormalities that lead to thrombosis (Virchows triad) (b) Describe the morphology of a thrombus. (c) What is the fate of a thrombus.
A 25 years old male drug abuser came to the hospital with generalized lymphadenopathy, chronic diarrhea, loss of weight and mucosal candidiasis. There is a fall in CD4 cell count. Answer the following: • What is your diagnosis • What is the pathogenesis of this condition • Discuss the pathology of the organs involved • List four investigations to be done
Define embolism. Enumerate the types with examples
Cardiac edema
Pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
FAB classification of Acute Leukemia.
Pictorially describe the extrinsic and intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Mention the tests used in their assessment with their normal ranges.
Types and pathogenesis of myocardial infarction
Pathogenesis and complications of Bronchiectasis.
The typical karyotype of Turner syndrome is a) 45, XO b) 46, XY c) 47, XXY d) 47, XYY
Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis and fibrinoid necrosis are associated with a) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis b) Analgesic abuse c) Malignant hypertension d) Diabetes mellitus
Nephrolithiasis
Etiopathogenesis of myocardial infarction
Intestinal polyps: classification and syndromes
Role of Arachidonic Metabolites in inflammation.
Wound healing by primary intention
Outline the differences between benign and malignant tumors.
Role of complement system in inflammation
Pathways of Metastasis and their mechanisms.
Risk factors and classification of endometrial carcinoma
Vegetation’s of the heart
Describe the autopsy findings in lungs and heart in a 40-year-old male with longstanding rheumatic heart disease with mitral stenosis
Factors influencing development of an infarct
Name the different types of giant cells. How does a foreign body giant cell differ from tumor giant cell
Fatty change – causes and pathology
Clinicopathological classification of tuberculosis.
Crescentic glomerulo nephritis.
What are the types of Leukemoid reaction. Discuss the causes.
Differences between Crohn disease and Ulcerative colitis
Lipofuscin deposition is most likely due to a) Autophagocytosis b) Necroptosis c) Pyroptosis d) Apoptosis
Hemorrhagic pericardial effusion is seen in a) Infective endocarditis b) Metastatic carcinoma c) Acute myocarcial infection d) Rheumatic heart fever
Lab investigations in Myocardial infarction
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Laboratory Findings in Chronic myeloid leukemia
Etiopathogenesis of cervical carcinoma.
Klienfilter syndrome
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic purpura.
Pyelonephritis
Renal changes in diabetes mellitus.
Define necrosis. Discuss coagulative necrosis with examples
Chemical mediators of acute inflammation.
Malignant tumors of bone
Oncogenic DNA viruses
Healing by primary intention.
Define bronchiectasis. Add a note on its etiopathogenesis, morphological features and complications.
Classify Hodgkin Lymphoma. Describe the morphological features and immunohistochemical profile of Classical Hodgkin Lymphoma
Gross and microscopic features of myocardial infarction
Steps involved in phagocytosis with help of a diagram
Routes of metastasis with examples
Apoptosis in pathologic conditions
Metastatic cascade
Types of calcification
Discuss factors affecting wound healing
Free radical injury.
Lab diagnosis and Pathogenesis of β thalassemia major.
Gross and Microscopic picture of seminoma testis
Discuss the different causes of cell injury with examples.
Causes and morphology of acute and chronic gastric ulcers
The action of putrefactive bacteria in necrosed tissue results in a) Coagulative Necrosis b) Infarction c) Wet Gangrene d) Caseation
Krukenberg tumour of the ovary is an example of a) Hematogenous spread b) Lymphatic spread c) Transceloemic spread d) Perineural spread
Phaeochromocytoma
Morphology of hepatocellular carcinoma
Etiopathogenesis of myocardial infarction. Add a note on the types of myocardial infarction
Morphology of Lobar pnuemonia
Primary tuberculosis – morphology and pathogenesis
Ridley and Jopling Classification of leprosy.
Radiologic features and morphology of osteosarcoma.
Discuss differences between benign and malignant neoplasms
Define and classify necrosis. Describe morphology of coagulative necrosis.
Inflammatory bowel disease
A 45-year-old male presents with a swelling over the right knee joint of three months duration. X-Ray reveals an expansile lytic lesion, predominantly in the epiphyseal region of right lower femur without any cortical breach. What is the likely diagnosis and why Describe the radiological, gross and microscopic findings in this condition.
Discuss the etiopathogenesis of carcinoma colon with a note on the adenoma- carcinoma sequence
Obstructive uropathy
Role of RB gene in tumor suppression
Morphologic features of apoptosis
Biologic mechanism of Type II hypersensitivity reaction. Give examples of four diseases with type II hypersensitivity as the mechanism of pathologic injury
Enumerate Four common causes of Hematuria. What is the principle of the chemical test used to detect the same Answer briefly:
Write one special stain each for demonstration of fat, glycogen, calcium and iron
Pneumoconiosis – Definition and common types.
List the components of Virchow’s triad. Describe how each of the components leads to thrombosis with suitable examples
CSF findings in acute bacterial, tuberculous and viral meningitis
Risk factors of atherosclerosis
Which of the following are antioxidants 1) Catalase 2) Myeloperoxidase 3) Glutathione peroxidase 4) Superoxide dismutase a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 1 d) 1, 2, 4
Which of the following are causes of hypercalcemia 1) Vitamin D intoxication 2) Acute pancreatitis 3) Sarcoidosis 4) Hyperparathyroidism a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4,1 d) 1, 2, 4
Ovarian stromal tumors
Etiopathogenesis of peptic ulcer
Etiopathogenesis of Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Staining characteristics of amyloid
Etiopathogenesis of bronchiectasis
Morphology of ulcerative colitis.
Hypersensitivity reactions
Types of aneurysms
Leukocyte recruitment to sites of inflammation.
Gross and microscopic changes in kidney in a long standing case of Diabetes Mellitus.
Lobar pneumonia
Explain the molecular basis of classification and prognostic features of Carcinoma breast.
Benign gestational trophoblastic diseases
Morphologic features of chronic inflammation
Laboratory diagnosis of megaloblastic anaemia
Immune Thrombocytopenia Purpura
Pathogenesis of HIV infection and AIDS.
Laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis.
Define granulomatous inflammation. Describe the pathogenesis and morphological features of any one type of granuloma
Changes in serum markers and liver histology in Hepatitis B infection
Examples for hypertrophy includes 1) Body builders 2) Myometrium of pregnant uterus 3) Fibroadenoma 4) Left ventricle in Hypertension a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 1 d) 1, 2, 4
Features of Cushings syndrome includes 1) Moon face 2) Impaired GTT 3) Thinning of the skin 4) Hypopigmentation a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 1 d) 1, 2, 4
Pathogenesis of Grave’s disease
Sequestrum
Define Metastasis, Enumerate the routes of metastasis and explain the mechanisms
Write two characteristic differences between Myeloblasts and Lymphoblasts.
CSF in tuberculous meningitis.
Hypersplenism.
Factors influencing wound healing
Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura
Staining properties of Amyloid.
Discuss the types of ulcers in intestine (large and small intestine).
Trophoblastic tumors
Describe the genetic basis, radiological findings and morphology of Ewing Sarcoma
Prognostic and predictive factors for breast carcinoma
Cytokines involved in acute inflammation
Morphology of spleen in amyloidosis
Define edema and describe the various pathogenetic mechanisms involved in different clinical situations associated with edema.
Giant cells
Tuberculous granuloma
Tertiary Syphilis.
Differences in CSF in pyogenic and tuberculous meningitis.
Gross and microscopic features of Phaeochromocytoma.
Define amyloid. Name the stains used for demonstration of amyloid.
Reed – Sternberg cells
T cell mediated disease includes 1) Rheumatoid arthritis 2) Psoriasis 3) Multiple sclerosis 4) Polyarteritis nodosa a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 1 d) 1, 2, 4
Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus is associated with 1) H. pylori infection 2) Chronic alcoholism 3) Tobacco usage 4) Plummer vinson syndrome a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4,1 d) 1, 2 ,4
Gross and microscopy of papillary carcinoma thyroid
Classify surface epithelial tumours of ovary
Classify Hodgkins lymphoma
Classify germ cell tumors of ovary
Complications of gallstones
Polycystic kidney disease.
What is a granuloma. Give Two causes of granuloma
Urinary casts
Morphologic features in Trisomy 21
Features of Down syndrome.
Discuss the gross and microscopic appearance (with a diagram) of hydatidiform mole.
Differentiate between ulcerative colitis and crohn’s disease
Write a short note on Hashimoto thyroiditis
Dysgerminoma ovary
AIDS defining opportunistic infections
Air embolism
Pathology of Nutmeg liver
Morphological changes in apoptosis.
Microscopic picture of amoebic dysentery colon.
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
Microscopic features of papillary carcinoma thyroid
Classical Hodgkin lymphoma subtypes are 1) Nodular lymphocyte predominant 2) Mixed cellularity 3) Nodular sclerosis 4) Lymphocyte depleted a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 1 d) 1, 2, 4
Risk factors of colorectal adenocarcinoma includes 1) Familial adenomatous polyp 2) Obesity 3) Low fiber diet 4) Intestinal amoebiasis a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 1 d) 1, 2, 4
What is thrombocytopenia. Enumerate Four common causes of thrombocytopenia
Morphology of Seminoma testis
Blood picture in megaloblastic Anemia.
Microscopy of dysgerminoma of ovary
Turner syndrome – aetiology and manifestations.
Proteinuria – causes and two tests for detection
Scurvy
List FOUR tumor markers and their associated malignancies
Discuss the etiopathogenesis and morphology of multinodular goitre.
Explain the macroscopic and microscopic changes seen in alcoholic cirrhosis with a labeled diagram
Emphysema – aetiopathogenesis and classification
Laboratory diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemia.
Factors affecting Erythrocyte Sedimentation rate
Rhinosporidiosis
Define shock. What are the stages
Type-I hyper sensitivity reaction.
Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction
Left sided heart failure
Gouty tophi
Clinical features of cystic fibrosis includes 1) Sinusitis 2) Bronchial asthma 3) Cirrhosis 4) Meconium ileus a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 1 d) 1, 2, 4
Syndromes associated with Wilms tumour are 1) WAGR 2) Gardner 3) Denys Drash 4) Beckwith Wiedemann a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 1 d) 1, 2, 4
Microscopy of alcoholic liver disease
What is a reticulocyte. Enumerate Two causes of reticulocytosis
Laboratory findings in myocardial infarction
Apoptosis
Four Causes of Cirrhosis of Liver
Crystals in urine
Anticoagulants used to preserve blood in blood bank. Answer in single sentence: (4x½=2)
Diabetic nephropathy
Aetiopathogenesis of carcinoma colon.
Discuss the etiopathogenesis and urinary findings in poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Basal cell carcinoma of the skin
Name four paraneoplastic syndromes with an example each for the underlying neoplasm causing it
Differential diagnosis of pancytopenia.
What is Metaplasia
Name an abnormal protein in urine
Properties of amyloid.
What is endometriosis
Leucoerythroblastic blood picture – definition and causes
Morphological features of papillary carcinoma thyroid
Name two germ cell tumors
(A): More than 70% of human cancers have a defect in p53 gene (R): p53 plays a central role in maintaining the integrity of the genome a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
(A) Leukoplakia and Erythroplakia are mucosal plaques that may undergo malignant transformation. (R) The risk of malignant transformation is greater in leukoplakia than in erythroplakia. a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
Subtypes of Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Histology of Barrett’s esophagus
.…………… bodies are commonly seen in alcoholic cirrhosis
…………… emphysema is seen in cystic fibrosis
Types of embolism
What is Reed Sternberg Cell
List four salivary gland neoplasms
Two uses of buffy coat.
Types of gall stones.
…………… is the commonest stain used to identify amyloidosis
List two tumors caused by Epstein-Barr-virus.
Mention two premalignant lesions of skin
Peripheral blood picture in acute myeloid leukemia
Describe the gross appearance of Chronic venous congestion liver.
Discuss the morphological appearance of Primary pulmonary tuberculosis.
Describe the types and grading of astrocytoma
Morphology of Hashimoto thyroiditis
Define metaplasia
Various adverse reactions of blood transfusion.
Aetiopathogenesis of Burkitt’s lymphoma and its morphology
Mention two urine tests for uncontrolled diabetes
Enumerate Components of Virchow’s triad
Examples for Romanowsky stain
Angiogenesis in tissue repair
What is Flexner – Wintersteiner Rosette
Discuss chemical carcinogenesis with examples
Polyps of intestine
Types of renal calculi
(A): Type-1 hypersensitivity reaction causes laryngeal edema (R): Histamine causes increased vascular permeability and pain a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
(A) Hepatocytes show PASD positive cytoplasmic globular inclusions in Alpha -1 -Antitrypsin deficiency. (R) Alpha-1-Antitrypsin deficiency is caused by mutations that lead to misfolding of Alpha -1-Antitrypsin a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
Two causes for nephrotic syndrome
Aschoff nodule
…………… is the commonest salivary gland tumour
Orphan Annie Eye nucleus is seen in ………………
Dysplasia
Name two microscopic subtypes of renal cell carcinoma
Microscopy of basal cell carcinoma of skin
What is Virchow’s triad.
Characteristic microscopic finding in Chronic venous congestion Spleen is …………
Mention four inherited disorders.
Barret esophagitis
Name two tumours seen mainly in infancy and childhood.
Etiology and types of gall stones
Diagnostic IHC makers of any four tumors
Define nephrotic syndrome. Describe the gross and microscopic changes in kidney in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Radiologic and morphological features of osteogenic sarcoma
Osmotic fragility test
Fate of a thrombus
Nephrotic range proteinuria – Definition and common causes
Types of hypersensitivity reaction
List two lysosomal disorders
------------------is caused by deficiency of vitamin C
Name two conditions in which ESR is more than 100 mm in 1st hr
Name one cause for increase in hydrostatic pressure leading to edema.
What is atypical pneumonia
Type of necrosis seen in myocardial infarction is ______________.
Name the coal induced pulmonary lesion seen in coal miners and urban dwellers
Mallory body
(A): Dengue hemorrhagic fever causes thrombocytopenia (R): Increase in immune destruction of platelets a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
(A) Migratory thrombophlebitis occurs in 10% of pancreatic carcinomas (R) Pancreatic carcinomas are associated with platelet aggregating factors, anticoagulants and necrotic products. a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
Describe the cardiac vegetations in infective endocarditis
Causes of L.V.F.
Aschoff body is seen in ……………… disease
Pyogenic meningitis causes decrease in ……………on Cerebrospinal fluid analysis.
RBC indices
Psammoma bodies are ………………..
Gastrin secreting tumors of stomach cause ------------------ syndrome
Sodium metabisulphite test is done to demonstrate what.
Adenomyosis.
Rickets is caused by deficiency of ……………
Special stains for amyloid.
Define early gastric cancer
Write the chromosomal abnormality in Chronic myeloid leukemia
Name two opportunistic infections in AIDS.
Why do smokers develop emphysema.
--------------- mutation commonly seen in Renal cell carcinoma
What is meant by Ghon focus.
Name the carcinoma that arises in the background of Barret esophagus
Name four type III hypersensitivity reactions
Name the type of necrosis seen in infarcts.
Name the type of cell death that is induced by a tightly regulated cell suicide program.
Mention two leukocyte adhesion molecules
Define necrosis
What is Sago Spleen.
Name a condition where "nutmeg liver pattern" is seen.
Mention two common complications of sickle cell anemia
Stain used to demonstrate myeloblasts in acute leukemia is __________________.
Name the inclusions seen in giant cells in sarcoidosis
Sites of ectopic pregnancy
(A): IL-4 and IL-13 causes activation of M2 macrophages (R): M2 macrophages are not microbicidal a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
(A) Intravesical administration of BCG (Bacillus Calmette Geurin) is a treatment for bladder carcinoma (R) BCG elicits granulomatous inflammation and local anti tumour immune response. a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
Mention the types of emphysema in chronic smokers
Rodent ulcer
Auer rods are seen in …………………
Eosinophilic laminated concretions called ……………… are seen in nodular hyperplasia of prostate
Normal specific gravity of urine
Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses are seen in ……………….
The antigen which appears before onset of symptoms in Hepatitis B is ----------
Two opportunistic infections in AIDS
Reed -Sternberg cell.
Give Two indications for Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC)
List two indications for bone-marrow aspiration study.
Name the condition associated with Bence-Jones proteinuria
Name an oncogenic virus and the tumour caused by it.
What is MEN 1 syndrome.
Two antibodies seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
What is Peutz Jegher’s polyp.
What is the stain for H. pylori
Define hypertrophy
Proto oncogene
Name a stain to demonstrate fungi in tissue.
Name the type of calcification that occurs in areas of necrosis
Types of infarcts
Name the condition of Male hypogonadism that occurs when there are two or more X chromosomes and one or more Y chromosomes.
Autoantibody in Sjogren’s disease is _______________________
Name the types of carcinoma lung
(A): Rotheras test detects proteins in urine (R): Nephrotic syndrome causes massive proteinuria a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
(A) Osteoarthritis is a chronic inflammatory disease of autoimmune origin. (R) It is an intrinsic disorder of cartilage in response to mechanical and biochemical stress and failure of its repair a) Both A & R are correct and R is the reason for A b) Both A & R are correct but R is not reason for A c) A is correct R is incorrect d) A is incorrect R is correct
Name the testicular tumor not associated with GCNIS
Name ONE special stain for fat
Name two bullous lesions in the skin.
Two tumors caused by H. Pylori
Name two causes of fatty liver.
What is the appearance of hepatocytes in hepatitis B infection
What is Direct Coomb’s test.
When there is a local or systemic excess of iron, ferritin forms --------------------------
Name the tumor marker produced by hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumors.
The fixative used for cervical cytology smear is ______________________
Name the IHC marker done in oral/oropharyngeal cancer
A 45 years old male presented to emergency department with difficulty in breathing, swelling of face, swollen lips, watering eyes and nose. He gave history of bee sting few minutes back.
Which of the following mediators suppress inflammation a) Prostaglandin b) Prostacyclin c) Leukotriene d) Lipoxin
Which of the following cytokine is NOT secreted by TH2 cells a) IL-4 b) IL-5 c) IFN-Gamma d) IL-13
The hypersensitivity reaction associated with this condition is a) Type-I b) Type-II c) Type-III d) Type-IV
Release of which of the following chemical mediators is most likely responsible for this finding a) Nitric oxide b) Prostaglandin E2 c) Complement C3b d) Histamine
Which of the following immunoglobulins play a major role in this reaction a) Ig A b) Ig G c) Ig E d) Ig M
A 53-year-old man has experienced severe chest pain for the past 6 hours. On physical examination he is afebrile, but has tachycardia. Laboratory studies show a serum troponin I of 10 ng/mL. A coronary angiogram is performed emergently and reveals >90% occlusion of the anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery.
What is the key complication in the first 24 hours of an MI a) Fibrinous pericarditis b) Coronary artery aneurysm c) Arrhythmia d) Mitral insufficiency
Which of the following cellular changes is associated with irreversible injury a) Glycogen stores are depleted b) Cytoplasmic sodium increases c) Nuclei undergo karyorrhexis d) Intracellular pH diminishes
Which of the following vessel is commonly occluded in MI a) Left anterior descending b) Left circumflex c) Right anterior descending d) Right coronary artery
What is the most sensitive and specific marker for a myocardial infarction (MI) a) AST b) LDH c) Troponin I d) CK-MB
What are the classic signs of a cardiac tamponade a) Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, increased jugular venous distension (JVD) b) Tachycardia, dyspnoea, fever c) Bradycardia, weakness in arms, diaphoresis d) Hypertension, palpitations, chest pain
Name two parasites seen in peripheral smear
Name one immunohistochemical marker for melanoma
Name ONE cancer that commonly spreads by hemotagenous route
Name two bullous disease of the skin
What is meant by involucrum.
Name the mode of inheritance of Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease
The fixative used for surgical biopsy specimen is ______________________
The cell adhesion molecule involved in transmigration is --------------------
Name an extra cellular parasite that is found in the blood stream.
What is the cytogenetic abnormality seen in Burkitt Lymphoma.
What is Linitis Plastica
A 35 year old male complains of fever, fatigue for the past 15 days. He had bleeding gums for the past 3 days. He had severe bone pains also. His total white blood cell count was 1,23,000 cells/c.mm with myeloblasts of 69%. a) What is your provisional diagnosis. b) Describe the peripheral smear and bone marrow findings. c) What other investigations are to be done for classifying the disease and assessing the prognosis of the patient.
A 65 year old male complains of dyspepsia, nausea, weightloss and loss of appetite since 6 months. Clinical examination reveals a mass palpable in the epigastric region. Endoscopy shows a proliferative growth near the stomach near the lesser curvature a) What is the probable diagnosis. b) Describe the aetiopathogenesis of the lesion. c) Classify and describe the morphology of the disease. d) Enumerate the usual sites of metastasis of this lesion.
Name the childhood tumor that occurs exclusively in the cerebellum
Name any ONE hemoparasite
What is the genetic basis of Wilms tumor.
Negri bodies seen in -------------
What is the genetic basis of Retinoblastoma
Name the types of gall bladder calculi
What is the cytogenetic abnormality seen in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
Name an x linked recessive disorder.
The anticoagulant of choice for packed cell volume estimation is …………..
What is LE cell
Name the ovarian tumor that secretes estrogen
Define Apoptosis. Give examples of physiologic and pathologic conditions associated with Apoptosis. Write in detail about mechanisms of Apoptosis.
Describe in detail the etiopathogenesis, clinical features, morphology and complications of Atherosclerosis.
Confirmatory test for hereditary spherocytosis
---------- crystals are deposited in Gout
Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in --------------- anemia
Ferruginous bodies are seen in ______________________
MEN 1 syndrome components
Orphan Annie nucleus is a feature of ______________________
Name two neoplasms of the adrenal gland
Low and fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in __________________
What is the most common RBC defect in Hereditary Spherocytosis.
Name the blood group that lacks A, B and H antigens.
Name two oncogenic viruses and the malignancy they cause
Name three types of gall stones
Cytokines in inflammation.
Risk factors and prognostic factors of carcinoma breast.
Two causes for thrombocytopenia
Skip lesions and deep fissured in colon are a feature of ----------
----------- necrosis is seen in Tuberculosis
Starry sky appearance in Burkitt Lymphoma is due _______________
Medullary carcinoma is derived from ------- cells of the thyroid
Name two causes of flea bitten kidney
Name the common molecular abnormality in carcinoma colon
Name two opportunistic viral infection seen in AIDS.
What is hemophilia A due to.
Name the most common complication of wound healing.
What is Barr body.
Name the histological features in post infectious glomerulonephritis
Name two opportunistic infections seen in HIV
Name one EBV- associated malignancy
Name the type of cells that replicate continuously
Cyclin D1 amplification is a feature of which lymphoma.
Prognostic markers of breast carcinoma
What is meant by Krukenberg tumor.
Name the grading system for prostatic carcinoma
The genetic defect in Gaucher disease is _______________________
The type of collagen in basement membrane is ---------------------
Two causes for megaloblastic anemia.
Name two anticoagulant and their use
Name the most common forms of autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
CSF findings in different types of meningitis
Type I hypersensitivity reaction mediated by ------------------- antibody
Name the antibody seen in Goodpasture syndrome
Heart failure cells are seen in ----------------
Amyloid deposits are seen in which thyroid neoplasm.
Two types of carcinoma lung
What is Ki 67.
Name the condition associated with mature thyroid tissue in a benign cystic teratoma of the ovary
Name two common causes for thrombocytopenia.
Name an intracellular parasite found in the blood
Name a diagnostic test in urine in multiple myeloma.
What is the difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia
Name the tumors associated with psammoma bodies
Classification of intestinal polyps
Two diagnostic methods in molecular genetics
Name the lung disease associated with cotton dust
Deficiency of dietary niacin leads to -------------
What is Aschoff body. In which condition do you see.
Two types of gallbladder stones
Name the condition in which Gamna Gandy bodies are seen.
What is Barrett esophagus.
Name the blood group with phenotype lacking H antigen on the red cell membrane and anti-H in the plasma
Hashimotos thyroiditis – Aetiopathogenesis and morphology.
Explain the pathogenesis of septic shock.
Osteogenic sarcoma – Aetiopathogenesis and morphology.
Define and classify Embolism.
Lab diagnosis of Megaloblastic anaemia.
Informed consent.
Pathology of Hodgkin lymphoma
Rickets – Aetiopathogenesis and manifestations.
Write briefly on the barriers to implementation of health as a universal right.
Transfusion reactions
Renal calculi – morphology and complications
Barrett’s esophagus predisposes to the development of A. Reflux esophagitis B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Esophageal varices D. Adenocarcinoma
The most aggressive ovarian germ cell tumor is A. Malignant teratoma B. Embryonal carcinoma C. Endodermal sinus tumor D. Dysgerminoma
ESR is markedly raised in A. Multiple myeloma B. Malaria C. Acute myeloblastic leukemia D. Haemophilia
Vasoactive amines play an important role in vascular events of inflammation. Histamine causes all EXCEPT A. Smooth muscle contraction B. Decreased vascular permeability C. Increased permeability D. Increased secretions
Which of the following pigment’s presence is a telltale sign of free radical injury A. Lipofuscin B. Melanin C. Bilirubin D. Hematin
All of the following are powerful antioxidant EXCEPT A. Superoxide dismutase B. Ceruloplasmin C. Transferin D. Nitric oxide synthase
Struma ovarii means A. Germ cell tumour of ovary B. Ovarian malformation C. Endometriosis of ovary D. Krukenberg tumour
Causes of Hypercalcemia A. Graves disease B. Primary hyper parathyroisism C. Carcinoid D. Medullary carcinoma
Which of the following is most reliable feature of malignant transformation of pheochromocytoma? A. Presence of mitotic figures B. Presence of metastasis to other organs C. Vascular/ capsular invasion D. All of the above
All are chemical mediators of acute inflammation EXCEPT A. Histamine B. Prostaglandin C. Leukotrienes D. Progesterone
Regarding melanoma all are true EXCEPT A. Radial growth pattern B. Pleomorphic tumor cells C. Breslow depth is a important prognostic features. D. BRAF mutation testing is not recommended for patient with stage III – IV melanoma.
Which of the following is DNA repair defect? A. Retinoblastoma B. Neurofibromatosis C. Xeroderma pigmentosum D. MEN-I
Venous emboli most often lodge in A. Intestine B. Lungs C. Kidney D. Heart
Atherosclerosis is predominantly a disease of A. Intima B. Media C. Adventitia D. Entire wall
All of the following are special stains for fat EXCEPT A. Sudan dyes B. PAS C. Osmic acid D. Oil Red O
All are true about Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma EXCEPT A. Epitaxis B. Highly vascular tumor C. Adolescent male D. Malignant tumor
Ferruginous bodies are seen in A. Silicosis B. Byssinosis C. Asbestosis D. Bagassosis
Which of the following is an example for labile cells A. Bone marrow B. Hepatocytes C. Neurons D. Fibroblasts
Diapedesis is A. Movement of leucocytes in the extra vascular compartment B. Immigration of the leucocytes through the vessel wall at the site of inflammation C. Aggregation of lymphocytes at the site of bleeding D. Autodigestion of the cells
Prolonged production of Acute phase proteins in chronic infection can cause A. Amyloidosis B. SLE C. Myocardial infarction D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Glomus tumor A. Salivary gland tumour B. Benign mesenchymal neoplasms in subungual region C. Renal tumour D. Ovarian tumour
Mucin seen in A. Lobular carcinoma breast B. Comedo carcinoma breast C. Colloid carcinoma breast D. Fibrocystic disease breast
A pediatrician performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a four-year-old boy, notices several small pigmented nodules in his irises. He also notices six light brown macules on the trunk of the child of variable sizes. This boy may have a propensity to develop tumors in which of the following structures? A. Bladder B. Colon C. Peripheral nerve D. Skin
50 year old male presents with breathlessness and weight loss. Imaging revealed nodular lesion in the left lung lower lobe. Biopsy shows an adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the likely mutation associated with this condition? A. EGFR mutation B. PTEN mutation C. BCL2 mutation D. APC mutation
Type III Hypersensitivity reaction is seen in all EXCEPT A. Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis B. Good Pasteur’s syndrome C. Systemic lupus erythematosus D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Hepar Lobatum is seen in A. Primary syphilis B. Tertiary syphilis C. Secondary syphilis D. Congenital syphilis
Most common congenital anomaly of heart is A. VSD B. ASD C. PDA D. Tetralogy of fallot
30 year old male on pure vegetarian diet presents with listlessness, tingling and numbness in his limbs. On lab evaluation his bone marrow shows presence of megaloblasts. Megaloblasts can be seen in A. Iron deficiency anaemia B. Haemolytic anaemia C. Vit B12 deficiency anemia D. Hereditary Spherocytosis
Warthin tumor is NOT A. Benign tumor B. Solid and cystic tumor of salivary gland C. Microscopy shows oncocytes and lymphoid follicles D. Most common by seen in young adults
All of the following are true about Adult Polycystic kidney disease EXCEPT A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Hypertension is rare C. Can be associated with cysts in liver, lungs and pancreas D. Pyelonephritis common
Caspases are involved in A. Acute inflammation B. Chronic inflammation C. Apoptosis D. Regeneration
Which of the following organs are heart failure cells seen in A. Myocardium B. Lungs C. Liver D. Spleen
A decrease in organ size(atrophy) may be result of each of the following EXCEPT A. Lack of innervation B. Ageing C. Metabolic storage disorder D. Reduction of hormone stimulation
Gynecomastia A. Enlargement of male breast B. Abnormal breast in female C. Fat necrosis of breast D. Ectopic breast tissue
Granulomas seen in all EXCEPT A. Tuberculosis B. Crohn’s disease C. Ulcerative colitis D. Sarcoidosis
Paget’s disease of the bone is also called A. Osteitis deformans B. Brittle bone disease C. Fibrous dysplasia D. Osteomalacia
Ghon’s complex comprises of which one of the following A. Hilar lymphadenopathy B. Apical fibrocavitatory lesion C. Miliary lesions across bilateral lungs D. Progressive primary lesions
The most common site for hydatid cyst is A. Liver B. Spleen C. Lung D. Brain
Nut meg liver is seen in all conditions EXCEPT A. Hepatic venous congestion. B. Right heart failure C. Budd chiari syndrome D. Reye’s syndrome
Mucormycosis is caused by A. Fungus B. Anaerobic bacteria C. Gram negative bacteria D. Acid fast bacteria
Serum Ig E levels are elevated in all EXCEPT A. Intrinsic bronchial asthma B. Extrinsic bronchial asthma C. Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis D. Tuberculosis of lungs
The DNA Oncogenic virus implicated in cervical carcinogenesis is A. Human papilloma virus B. Herpes virus C. POX virus D. Hepatitis B virus
All are true about Chronic gastritis EXCEPT A. H pylori infection B. Antral gastritis C. Risk of lymphoma D. Good appetite
Lymphoid aggregates is seen in which parotid tumour A. Pleomorphic adenoma B. Warthins tumour C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
24 year old male sustains multiple fratures of long bone in a road traffic accident. Which of the following stains is used to detect fat embolism A. Oil-red-O B. Best carmine C. PAS D. Von Kossa
White infarct is seen in all EXCEPT A. Lungs B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Heart
A 30 year old woman got a cut on her finger while cutting vegetables. On examination the wound was clean and approximated with the help of sutures. By what day would you expect to see the formation of granulation tissue in this type of healing? A. Day 1-3 B. Day 3-5 C. Day 5-7 D. After 1 week
Anchovy Sauce type of pus seen in A. Lung abscess B. Amoebic liver abscess C. Brain abscess D. Pancreatitis
Epulis is A. Localised swelling of gums B. Benign breast lesion C. Benign skin tumour D. Benign thyroid tumor
Hematuria with red cell cast and dysmorphic RBC are seen in: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Renal TB C. Renal Calculi D. Chronic renal failure
Down’s syndrome is due to A. Trisomy 22 B. Trisomy 21 C. Trisomy 18 D. Trisomy 20
Most common features of nephrotic syndrome is A. Heavy proteinuria B. Microscopic hematuria C. Hypertension D. Oliguria
Dystrophic calcification is seen in all EXCEPT A. Old healed tuberculosis B. Damaged heart valves C. Fat necrosis D. Chronic kidney failure
Plasmodium Falciparum causes A. Cerebral malaria B. Babesiosis C. Leshmaniasis D. Dengue fever
Which of the following disease is X linked recessive inheritance A. Sickle cell anemia B. Adult polycystic kidney C. Haemophilia D. Hereditary Spherocytosis
Bronchiectasis is characterized by EXCEPT A. Dilatation of bronchi B. Lung abscess C. Peri bronchiolar fibrosis D. Large alveoli
Anti-Gliadin antibodies are detected in A. Tropical sprue B. Whipples disease C. Celiac disease D. Intestinal Lymphoma
Starry sky appearances is seen in A. Large cell lymphoma B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Burkitt lymphoma D. T – cell lymphoma
Correct sequence of cell cycle is A. G0-M-G2-S-G1 B. G0-G1-G2-S-M C. G0-G1-S-G2-M D. G0-G1-S-M-G2
Vitamin K dependent clotting factors include all EXCEPT A. Factor VII B. Factor IX C. Factor XI D. Factor X
Dukes staging is for A. Carcinoma stomach B. Carcinoma oesophagus C. Carcinoma colon D. Carcinoma pancreas
Desmoids is most likely to arises from A. Ovary B. Cervix C. Scar D. Endometrium
Inflammatory Causes of pleural effusion include all EXCEPT A. Tuberculosis B. Bronchiectasis C. Lung infarct D. Renal failure
63 year old male hypertensive develops paralysis of the right side of the body. Which of the following patterns of tissue injury is likely to be present in the brain after 4-5 days? A. Fat necrosis B. Caseous necrosis C. Coagulated necrosis D. Liquefactive necrosis
In Marfan’s syndrome there is defect in protein A. Dystrophin B. Spectrin C. Fibrillin D. Ankyrin
Basement membrane consists of A. Type I collagen B. Type II collagen C. Type III collagen D. Type IV collagen
Acute viral hepatitis by the following hepatotropic virus is characterized by fatty change in the liver A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HDV
Which of the following is a tumor suppressor genes A. RB B. PDGF C. RAS D. EGF
Bronchial carcinoid arises from A. Columnar epithelial cells B. Goblet cells C. Neuroendorine cells D. Alveolar lining cells
In cirrhosis of liver, collagen is laid down by A. Hepatocytes B. Hepatic stellate cells C. Biliary epithelial cells D. Kupffer cells
ESR is increased markedly in A. Dengue fever B. Tuberculosis C. Malaria D. Typhoid
All of the following are examples of tumour markers EXCEPT A. Human chorionic Gonadotropin B. Alpha Fetoprotein C. Prostate specific antigen D. Cyclin D1
Which of the following is matched correctly A. Huntington’s disease- Autosomal recessive B. Familial hypercholesterolemia- X linked recessive C. Marfan syndrome- X linked dominant D. Alkaptonuria- Autosomal recessive
Aphthous ulcer seen in A. Mouth B. Skin C. Stomach D. Colon
Marfans syndrome A. Disorders of connective tissue B. Disorders of thyroid C. Disorders of calcium metabolism, D. Vit-D deficiency
Choriocarcinoma is characterized by all EXCEPT A. Primarily trophoblastic tumor B. It can occur following hydatidiform mole C. Villi present D. It can metastasize to lungs
Acute promeylocytic leukemia characteristically shows presences of Auer rods in the blast. Which of the following stains highlight these Auer rods A. Verhoff stain B. Myeloperoxidase C. PAS D. Glial fibrillary acidic protein
Indian file pattern is seen in A. Infiltrating duct carcinoma breast B. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma breast C. Medullary carcinoma breast D. Tubular carcinoma breast
Which of the following is a feature of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)? A. Normal prothrombin time B. Reduced plasma fibrinogen C. Normal platelet count D. Normal clotting time
Basophilia is most likely to be seen in A. Bronchial asthma B. CML C. Angioneurotic edema D. Corticosteroid therapy
The most frequent form of primary glomerular disease in children is A. Minimal change disease B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Membranous GN D. Membranoproliferative GN
Delayed type of hypersensitivity resulting in the formation of a granuloma is typically seen in A. Type I hypersensitivity reaction B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Chalazion is chronic inflammatory process involving A. Sebaceous gland of Zeiss B. Meibomian glands C. Apocrine glands of Moli D. Eyelash follicle
Which of the following is not a malignant tumour of germ cell origin A. Mature teratoma B. Choriocarcinoma C. Dysgerminoma D. Embryonal carcinoma
Pernicious anemia is due to A. Iron deficiency B. Intrinsic factory deficiency C. Sickling of RBCs D. Red cell membrane deficiency
Antigen presenting cells present in skin are called A. Langerhans cells B. Kupffer cells C. Microglia D. Melanocytes
EBV induced Burkitt’s lymphoma causes following translocation A. 14:8 B. 18:4 C. 8:14 D. 4:18
Ghon’s Focus seen in A. Skin B. Tongue C. Brain D. Sub pleural lung
Cryptorchidism A. Hydrocele B. Thyroid deficiency C. Adrenal deficiency D. Undescended testis
In an individual with suspected myocardial infarction of 24 hours duration, the serum enzyme estimation of choice is A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. Myoglobin C. Creatine phosphokinase-MB D. Oxaloacetate transaminase
70 year old male presented with worsening heart failure. Echocardiogram showed cardiomegaly with four chamber dilatation. Which type of amyloid is likely to be present in the heart A. SAA B. Transthyretin C. AL D. Beta2 microglobulin
Molluscum contagiosum is caused by A. Papilloma virus B. Pox virus C. Herpes virus D. EB virus
Carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated in all, EXCEPT A. Carcinoma pancreas B. Carcinoma colon C. Carcinoma stomach D. Carcinoma prostate
Rate of sickling in sickle cell anemia is increased in all EXCEPT A. Higher concentration of HbS B. A decrease in intracellular pH C. Higher concentration of HbF D. Higher deoxygenation
The following type of carcinoma of breast is characterized by Indian file pattern A. Infiltrating duct cell carcinoma B. Invasive lobular carcinoma C. Medullary carcinoma D. Tubular carcinoma
Which of the following antibodies is likely to identified on laboratory testing in a patient with systemic lupus erythematosis A. Anti DS DNA B. SS-A C. SS-B D. Jo-1
Endometriosis is seen in EXCEPT A. Uterus B. Ovary C. Fallopian tube D. Liver
Most common site for medulloblastoma is A. Medulla B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum D. Spinal cord
Peripheral smear is reported as poikilocytosis in a patient with long standing anemia. Poikilocytosis refers to A. Different shapes of RBCs B. Different sizes of RBCs C. Inclusions in RBCs D. Increase in RBCs
Which of the following is not true about innate immunity A. It is present prior to antigenic exposure B. It is relatively non-specific C. Memory is seen D. It is the first line of defence
All are examples of tumour suppressor genes implicated in human cancer EXCEPT A. RB gene B. RET C. APC D. Tp-53
All are germ cell tumors EXCEPT A. Dysgerminoma B. Embryonal Carcinoma C. Krukenberg Tumour D. Teratoma
Malignancy, most commonly arising from renal pelvis is A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Transitional cell carcinoma C. Melanoma D. Adeno carcinoma
Myasthenia gravis is associated with A. Hypergammaglobulinemia B. Thymoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Hepatic adenoma
In Giant cell tumor of bone the tumor cells are A. Osteoclastic giant cells B. Mononuclear stromal cells C. Fibroblastic cells D. Sinusoidal lining cells
7-year-old girl presents with haematoma in the thigh. She has prolonged APTT, normal PT and platelet count. This is due to deficiency of any of the factor EXCEPT A. Factor IX B. Factor VIII C. Factor VII D. Factor XI
Denatured globin chains are known as A. Heinz bodes B. Gamma gandy bodies C. Pappenheimer bodies D. Russel bodies
In cases of renal failure on long term hemodialysis which of following type of amyloid is seen A. Amyloid light chain (AL) B. Amyloid associated protein (AA) C. Amyloid beta 2 microglobulin (Abets2m) D. Beta amyloid protein (A beta)
All is the true with fibrolamellar hepato cellular carcinoma EXCEPT A. Found in young age B. Not proceeded by cirrhosis C. Encapsulated D. Worse prognosis than hepatocellular carcinoma
Histological hallmark of Paget’s disease of nipple is A. Caseous necrosis B. Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells C. Atypical lobular hyperplasia D. Desmoplasia
Hemophilia is a A. B12 deficiency anemia B. Type of leukemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Bleeding disorder
Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions A. Acute lymphoid leukemia B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. Chronic Myelogenous leukemia D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Most common presentation of paraneoplastic syndrome is A. Hypercalcemia B. Acanthosis nigricans C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Hypoglycemia
Psammoma bodies seen in A. Papillary carcinoma thyroid B. Follicular carcinoma thyroid C. Medullary carcinoma thyroid D. Oncocytic carcinoma thyroid
Osteoid seen in A. Enchondroma B. Osteogenic sarcoma C. Osteoclastoma D. Paget diseases of bone
Chronic ulcerative colitis usually starts in the: A. Hepatic or splenic flexure B. Rectosigmoid area C. Transverse colon D. Terminal ileum
Howell Jolly bodies are seen in A. Myeloblasts B. Lymphoblasts C. Megaloblasts D. Sickle cell
Gout is associated with all EXCEPT A. Acute arthritis B. Hyperuricemia C. Tophi D. Calcification
Which of the following is NOT a poor prognostic factor in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia? A. Presence of t (9:22) B. Age < 2 years C. Hyperploidy D. Peripheral blood blast count >1 lakh
Atrophic glossitis is seen in A. Sideroblastic anemia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Thalassemia
All are immunohistochemical stains for melanoma EXCEPT A. HMB 45 B. S 100 C. Melan A D. SMA
Rodent ulcer is A. Sebaceous carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Melanoma
MEN IIB syndrome includes all EXCEPT A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Marfanoid features C. Medullary thyroid carcinoma D. Pheochromocytoma
Gamna Gandy bodies are seen in A. Spleen B. Liver C. Oral cavity D. RBCs
Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in A. Iron deficiency anaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Sickle cell anaemia D. Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia
Lead poisoning produces following change in RBC’s A. Pappenheimer bodies B. Heinz bodies C. Howell-Jolly bodies D. Basophilic stippling
Rodent ulcer means A. Squamous cell carcinomatous ulcer B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Gastric ulcer D. Ulcerative colitis
Markers of Epithelial carcinoma A. Desmin B. Vimentin C. Cytokeratin D. S-100
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from A. Gilberts jaundice B. Dubin Johnson syndrome C. Physiological jaundice D. Decreased hepatic uptake
Neutrophilia is typically seen in A. Acute bacterial infections B. Typhoid C. Malaria D. Infectious mononucleosis
Type of meningioma associate with extraneural metastasis A. Syncytial meningioma B. Fibrous meningioma C. Anaplastic meningioma D. Angioblastic meningioma
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is seen in: A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia B. Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia D. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
Phildelphia chromosome is A. T (8:14) B. T (22:9) C. T (9:22) D. T (14:8)
Paget’s disease of bone has following features EXCEPT A. Affects older age past 50 years B. Elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase C. There is generally hypocalcemia D. Role of virus in etiology
Type of antibodies usually seen in chronic ITP are A. Ig A B. Ig M C. Ig E D. Ig G
Common cause of nephrotic syndrome is children A. Acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis B. Minimal change disease C. Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Bone tumor arising from diaphysis is A. Ostogenic sarcoma B. Chondrosarcoma C. Giant cell tumour D. Ewing sarcoma
Previous-year question papers. Question patterns derived from published papers for Pathology.