Microbiology Previous Year Question Papers

Viral hemorrhagic fevers

24 old college girl had a bakery items from the bakery. After consuming food she had vomiting with in 6 hours of consumption associated with abdominal pain. What could have been the probable etiology. Elaborate it pathogenesis and tab diagnosis

25 year old man comes to blood bank for blood donation. On collecting the sample for testing he was found to be hepatitis B positive. How ill you disclose the result to the patient

19 year old lady comes to gynecology department with history of thin green colour foul smelling discharge from the vagina associated with intense pruritis a. What is the causative organisms b. Discuss the pathogenesis and lab diagnosis

Describe the pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of bacillary dysentery

Bacterial Flagella.

Anaerobic culture methods.

Type III Hypersensitivity.

Lab diagnosis of Urinary Tract Infection.

Antibiotic associated Diarrhoea.

Neonatal meningitis acquired through infected birth canal is due to: a) Viridans Streptococci b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Streptococcus agalactiae d) Streptococcus pneumonia

Stool concentration techniques.

Graft versus Host Reaction.

Throat swab is not useful for diagnosis of a) Streptococcal pharyngitis b) Diphtheria c) Pneumonia d) COVID- 19

Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA is: a) Transformation b) Transposition c) Conjugation d) Transduction

Tissue should be segregated in which colour bag? a) Yellow b) Blue c) Red d) Black

Sporulation of bacterium occurs in which phase of bacterial growth? a) Lag phase b) Log phase c) Phase of decline d) Stationary phase

Laboratory diagnosis of Leprosy.

Transduction.

Aspergillosis.

Visceral Larva Migrans.

Robertson's cooked meat medium is an example of: a) Enriched medium b) Enrichment medium c) Anaerobic medium d) Selective medium

All of the following are monoclonal antibodies except a) Rituximab b) Trastuzumab c) Infliximab d) Tamoxifen

Rheumatic fever usually follows an infection with a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Streptococcus viridans c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Haemophilus influenzae

Endoscopes are sterilized using which of the following methods? a) Glutaraldehyde b) Formaldehyde c) Autoclaving d) Hot air oven

Which of the following is not considered a potential agent of bioterrorism and biologic warfare? a) Yersinia pestis b) Botulinum toxin c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Bacillus anthracis

M. tuberculosis was discovered by a) Robert Koch b) Louis Pasteur c) Calmette and Guerin d) Paul Ehrlich

Which of the following is non cultivable mycobacteria? a) M tuberculosis b) M avium intracellulare c) bovis M d) M leprae

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ? a) Spleen b) Mucosa associated Lymphoid Tissue c) Thymus d) Tonsils

In a patient with bubonic form of plague, all the following specimens are acceptable for diagnosis except a) Stool culture b) Blood culture c) Culture of lymph node aspirate d) Acute and convalescent serum

Filariasis in India is transmitted by a) Musca domestica b) Anopheles gambiae c) Culex quinquefasciatus d) Aedes aegypti

Which NACO strategy is applicable for antenatal screening for HIV infection? a) Strategy I b) Strategy IIA c) Strategy IIB d) Strategy III

Lyme's disease is caused by a) Borrelia burgdorferi b) Borrelia vincentii c) Borrelia recurrentis d) Borrelia hermsii

A farmer presents with upper abdominal mass and a positive Casoni's test, The causative agent is a) Echinococcus granulosus b) Ascaris lumbricoides c) Ancylostoma duodenale d) Trichuris trichura

African sleeping sickness is caused by a) Leishmania donovani b) Trypanosoma brucei c) Trypanosoma cruzei d) Trypanosoma rangeli

Staphylococcus epidermidis may cause: a) Toxic shock syndrome b) Stitch abscess c) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome d) All of the above

BCG vaccine is an example of: a) Natural active immunity b) Natural passive immunity c) Artificial passive immunity d) Artificial active immunity

Malta fever is also called as: a) Relapsing fever b) Epidemic relapsing fever c) Undulant fever d) Haemorrhagic fever

Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with a) Cytomegalovirus b) Varicella zoster virus c) Herpes simplex virus d) Epstein Barr virus

Epstein Barr is associated with the all of the following malignancies except a) Burkitt's lymphoma b) Carcinoma of cervix c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma d) Non-Hodgkins lymphoma

Which is more antigenic in inducing immune response a) Nucleic acid b) Carbohydrate c) Protein d) Lipid

Soft chancre is caused by a) Treponema pallidum b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae c) Haemophilus ducreyi d) Chlamydia trachomatis

Which of the following samples is not useful in diagnosis of Enteric fever? a) Blood b) Stool c) Urine d) Sputum

All members of Enterobacteriaceae are: a) Catalase negative b) Oxidase positive c) Lactose fermenters d) Nitrate reducers

The most common cause of Ophthalmia neonatorum a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae b) Staphylococcus c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) E.coli

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is not transmitted parenterally? a) Hepatitis B virus b) Hepatitis D virus c) Hepatitis C virus d) Hepatitis E virus

Which of the following parasite causes megaloblastic anaemia? a) Ancylostoma duodenale b) Plasmodium falciparum c) Diphyllobothrium latum d) All of the above

Plastic infectious waste should be segregated in which colour bag? a) Yellow b) Blue c) Red d) Black

Biological false positive reaction is: a) Positive VDRL test but negative TPHA b) Positive RPR test & TPHA c) Negative RPR test but positive TPHA d) Negative VDRL & TPHA

The most common mode of transmission of Brucella is a) Direct contact b) Air borne c) Man to man d) Ingestion of raw milk

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a complication of a) Mumps b) Measles c) Rubella d) Rabies

Which one of the following is an enriched medium? a) Selenite F Broth b) Peptone water c) MacConkey agar d) Blood agar

Who introduced vaccination method for prevention of small pox? a) Edward Jenner b) Joseph Lister c) Robert Koch d) Louis Pasteur

The most common route of spread of bacterial meningitis is: a) Hematogenous spread b) Direct spread from infected site close to meninges c) Direct intra neural spread along the nerve d) Anatomical defect in CNS

The bivalent HPV vaccine includes the following two serotypes: a) Serotypes 31 & 33 b) Serotypes 16 & 18 c) Serotypes 45 & 52 d) Serotypes 6 & 11

Which one of the following methods of antimicrobial susceptibility testing does not detect MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)? a) Disk Diffusion test b) Broth Dilution method c) Agar Dilution method d) Epsilometer test

Which of the following is not used as an indicator organism of faecal contamination of water a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella typhi c) Faecal Streptococci d) Pseudomonas

Organisms producing extended spectrum β-lactamases (ESBL) are: a) Resistant to all penicillins- 1st, 2nd & 3rd generation cephalosporins and monobactams b) Resistant to penicillins c) Resistant to cephalosporins of 1st,2nd & 3rd generation d) Resistant to cephalosporins of 4th generation

Critical and semi critical items are sterilized by a) Glutaraldehyde b) Autoclave c) Ethyl alcohol d) Ethylene oxide

Which one of the following fungi are not thermally dimorphic a) Blastomyces dermatitidis b) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis c) Histoplasma capsulatum d) Cryptococcus neoformans

Which of the following is not a mycobacterial skin lesion a) Scrofuloderma b) Fish tank granuloma c) Erysipeloid d) Buruli ulcer

Rate of infection occurring at a higher rate than usual in a particular geographical area is known as a) Epidemic b) Pandemic c) Hyper endemic d) Sporadic

Intracellular survival of Mycobacterium tubercle bacilli inside the macrophage is due to a) Inhibition of entry into host cell b) Inhibition of entry into phagosome c) Inhibition of phagosome and lysosome fusion d) Inhibition of degradation by lysosomal enzymes

Which of the following can be converted to toxoid by formaldehyde a) Exotoxin b) Endotoxin c) Endospore d) All of the above

Autoantibodies binding to basement membrane antigens of renal glomeruli and alveoli, leading to haematuria and hemoptysis is the hallmark of a) Myasthenia gravis b) Goodpasture syndrome c) Graves disease d) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Malignant pustule is caused by a) Bacillus anthracis b) Clostridium perfringens c) Bordetella pertussis d) Clostridium novyi

Cutaneous larva migrans is not seen with a) Ancylostoma brasiliensis b) Ancylostoma duodenale c) Entamoeba histolytica d) Necator americanus

Prozone phenomenon in Ag Ab reaction is due to a) Excess antibodies b) Excess antigen c) Hyperimmune serum d) Complement excess

Cutaneous leishmaniasis is also called as a) Delhi boil b) Aleppo boil c) Baghdad button d) All of the above

All waste sharps should be discarded in: a) Cardboard boxes with blue coloured markings b) Puncture proof and leak proof white containers c) Red coloured non- chlorinated container d) Yellow coloured container

Maximum consumption of antibiotics occurs in India for which of the following condition a) Human therapeutic use b) Human non therapeutic use c) Animal therapeutic use d) Animal non therapeutic use

Which of the following is not used for clinical diagnosis of COV1D-19 disease a) Real time PCR b) Truenat c) Antibody detection d) Antigen detection

Which of the following is not a potentially highly infectious specimen for occupational injury in health care settings a) Blood b) CSF c) Saliva d) Semen

Gene targets for confirmation of COV1D 19 includes a) Spike Protein b) Envelope protein c) Membrane protein d) RNA dependent RNA polymerase

Define and classify Hypersensitivity Reactions. Write in detail about type IV Hypersensitivity Reactions.

A 32-year-old male patient from a mosquito endemic area comes with history of intermittent fever (every third day), with chills and rigors. On examination patient is Febrile- temperature of 102o F. he has pallor, icterus and splenomegaly. Peripheral smear was advised by the treating physician. a. Diagnose the clinical condition. b. Elaborate on laboratory diagnosis for this patient. c. Explain the pathogenesis and complications of this disease. d. List the drugs used in the treatment.

A 55 year old male was admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe pain in the lateral aspect of his left calf and small amount of pus discharge from the ingrown hair. On physical examination the local area was found to be red, warm and tender, pus was aspirated and was subjected to Gram stain which showed Gram positive cocci in clusters. Culture on blood Agar showed golden yellow pigmented Beta Haemolytic Colonies. a. What is the clinical diagnosis and its aetiological agent? b. List the infections caused by this organism. c. List the virulence factors of this organism. d. Briefly discuss the laboratory diagnosis.

A 50 year old male complains of fever and cough, with “Rust” colored sputum. A chest x-ray shows a dense infiltration of the right upper lobe and pleural effusion. Sputum was sent for culture and sensitivity. Microscopy shows Gram positive diplococci with clear halo along with pus cells seen in Gram stain. a. What is the probable aetiological agent in the above case. b. Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of the organism. c. Write a note on Prophylaxis in Immunocompromised individuals against this organism.

Enumerate the properties and types of Antigen- Antibody Reaction. Describe in detail about the principle, types and applications of ELISA.

A 55-year-old male came to OPD with complaints of fever, vomiting, severe headache and photophobia since 2 days. On examination he had a temperature of 39o C pulse rate of 96 bpm. He has recently had ear infection. Neck stiffness was noted. Relevant sample was spent for confirmation of the diagnosis. a. Elaborate on the sample collection. b. Gram stain report of the sample revealed lens shaped gram-positive Diplococci with a halo around and plenty of the Polymorphonuclear cells. Identify the probable pathogen. c. Elaborate on laboratory tests done to confirm the pathogen. d. Add a note on Prophylaxis and treatment available for this pathogen.

A 7 year old female child presented to cardiology OPD with swollen red tender joints which migrated from one joint to another over a period of hours. The child was having abnormal gait. She also complained of painless small mobile lumps beneath the skin overlying bony prominences. On auscultation murmur was heard over the Mitral valve area. ECG showed prolongation of P-R interval. Child gives a history of sore throat 3 weeks back. a. What is the probable clinical diagnosis and its aetiological agent? b. Describe the diagnosis criteria used for this condition. c. How will you prevent recurrence of such episodes?

A 25-year-old male complains of loss of appetite since one week. He also says that he noticed yellowish discoloration of his eyes and skin. He is a lab technician and works in laboratory. On questioning he recalled that he had needle stick injury one month back. Vaccination record shows that he had taken only one dose of Hepatitis B vaccine 2 months back. a. What is the most probable diagnosis? Explain with reasons. b. What is the laboratory investigation suggested. c. Write about the Immuno-prophylaxis for the health care workers against Blood borne pathogens.

Enumerate the Arbo Viral Infections prevalent in India. Describe the pathogenesis, complications and laboratory diagnosis of Dengue.

A 38 year old male having multiple sex partners came to a clinic with pain less ulcer on penis. a. What organisms is the likely cause of this disease? b. Write about the sexually transmitted diseases causing Genital Ulcers. c. Write about lab diagnosis?

Discuss in detail the laboratory diagnosis of Viral Infections.

Koch postulates.

Lab diagnosis of Mycetoma.

Amoebic Liver Abscess.

Guinea worm infection.

Yaws.

Lab diagnosis and Prophylaxis of Japanese Encephalitis.

Mechanism of Antibiotic Resistance.

Gonorrhoea- pathogenesis and Lab diagnosis

Polymerase chain reaction.

Describe the laboratory diagnosis of Typhoid Fever.

Antirabies vaccines.

Elaborate the etiology and lab diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis.

Pathogenesis of COVID-19 disease.

Mumps.

Methods of detecting Viral Growth in Cells.

Discuss the pathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis of HIV.

Describe the Tetanus Prophylaxis.

Extra intestinal amoebiasis.

Describe the principle, uses, advantages and disadvantages of ELISA.

Coxsackie Viruses.

A medical intern comes to the Infection control officer with history of Needle Stick Injury 1 hour back. The source patient’s blood sample is tested for HIV, HBV and HCV. Test result shows it is reactive for HIV, negative for HBV and HCV. Medical intern was in panic. What is the role of Infection control officer in this situation.

Q Fever.

Mucormycosis.

Laboratory diagnosis of Fungal Infection.

Describe the etiology, clinical features and diagnosis of Shigellosis.

Post exposure prophylaxis against Rabies.

Write about primary Complex.

Kyasanur Forest Disease.

Negribody

Disinfectants used in Hospital.

Etiological agents of Non Gonococcal Urethritis.

Name three Zoonotic Diseases.

Four differences between Classical and El tor Vibrios.

Name three Protozoal parasites pathogenic in Man.

Name three viruses causing Cancer.

What is the color coding for Biomedical Waste according to BMW management rules 2016.

Sheathed Microfilaria.

Blood Culture Procedure.

Antigenic Drift.

Germ Tube.

Congenital Syphilis.

Name three Diarrhoea causing viruses.

What are oncogenic viruses? Name four Oncogenic Viruses.

Name three bacterial Zoonotic Diseases.

Name three Tumour associated Antigens.

DPT Vaccine.

Give three examples of Heterophile Agglutination reactions.

List three Septic Markers.

Occult Filariasis.

Name three microorganisms which are used as Bioweapons.

Classification of Arbo Viruses.

Name three Microfilaria of medical importance.

What is the principle of a Fluorescence Microscope.

TORCH agents.

National Tuberculosis Elimination Program.

Name three diseases caused by Superantigens.

Name three agents causing Ocular Mycoses.

Bacterial spore

Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)

Malignant pustule

Plasmids

Laboratory diagnosis of syphilis

Describe the pathogenesis, laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of poliomyelitis

Prions

Name any TWO sporicidal disinfectants

MMR vaccine

Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction

Hydatid disease.

Name four complications of Falciparum malaria.

Draw and label fertilized egg of Ascaris lumbricoides

Nongonococcal urethritis

Trichomonas vaginalis.

Antigenic variations of influenza virus

Standard tests for syphilis

Laboratory diagnosis of leptospirosis

Candida albicans.

Name ONE antiviral drug used for treatment of influenza

Name TWO oncogenic viruses

Name two selective media

A 45 year old smoker comes to medicine OPD with a history of low grade fever with an evening rise of temperature, loss of weight and productive cough for the past two months. Recently, he had hemoptysis. Microscopic examination of sputum sample revealed acid fast bacilli. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the etiological agent c) Describe the pathogenesis of this disease d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail e) Discuss the drug resistance that can occur in this etiological agent f) Name the national health programme for this disease

A young adult female presented with headache, fever and abdominal discomfort for the past 5 days. On examination, she was toxic with a temperature of 1010 F, coated tongue and mild splenomegaly were also present. a) What is the most probable diagnosis. Name the etiological agents b) Describe the pathogenesis of this disease c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail d) Add a note on the treatment and vaccines available for this condition

A 50 year old male presented to medicine OPD with evening rise of temperature, weight loss and productive cough for the past two months. Microscopic examination of the sputum revealed acid fast bacilli. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the etiological agent c) Discuss the pathogenesis of this disease d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis including newer methods of diagnosis e) Define multidrug resistance of this etiological agent

A 22-year-old male came to the Medicine OPD with complaints of increased frequency of loose stools with blood and mucus since 2 days. (a) What is the clinical diagnosis (b) What are the TWO common etiological agents (c)How do you differentiate the parasitic and bacterial agents causing the above condition?" (d) Draw neatly labeled diagrams of the morphological forms seen in stool of the parasitic etiological agent. (e) How does one get the above infection (f) Which is the infective stage to man (g) List the extra intestinal complication of this condition and its laboratory diagnosis (h) Name TWO drugs to treat the above condition

A 11-year-old girl, presented with history of agitation, delirium, abnormal behavior, hallucinations, difficulty in swallowing liquids and fear of water. Her parents reported that she was bitten by a stray dog on her right leg two months prior to presentation for which she had received only oral antibiotics and injection tetanus toxoid. a) What is your clinical diagnosis and name the causative agent. b) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the causative agent. c) Describe the pathogenesis. d) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis in detail. e) Add a note on the prophylactic measures available for this disease.

A 30-year-old female came to emergency department with productive cough, fever, chest pain and shortness of breath for past 4 days. On examination, her temperature was 1010F respiratory rate was 30/min, Chest examination revealed decreased breath sounds on left lung. Chest X-ray showed homogenous ground glass opacity in left lower lobe. Sputum upon gram staining showed gram positive cocci arranged in pairs with plenty of pus cells. (a) What is the clinical condition. (b) What is the causative organism. (c) Enumerate the other causative organisms of this condition. (d) Laboratory diagnosis of the above condition. (e) Vaccine strategy for above condition.

A 40 year old male presented with complaints of unexplained fever, loss of weight, persistent diarrhoea and generalized lymphadenopathy for past six months. He gave a history of exposure with multiple sex partners a) What is the most probable diagnosis b) Describe the modes of transmission of this disease c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis in detail d) Name two acid fast parasites causing diarrhoea in this condition e) Describe the post exposure prophylaxis of this disease

A 5-year-old girl was brought in by her mother with the symptoms of fever, vomiting (7-8 episodes) and altered sensorium for the last 24 h. Central nervous system examination showed that she was drowsy, had signs of meningeal irritation, neck rigidity. Examination of CSF showed neutrophilic predominance. (a) What is the clinical diagnosis. (b) Name SIX common probable causes of this clinical condition. (c) Name two rapid tests to detect these causes. (d) What are the confirmatory tests that can be done in the laboratory. (e) Name the antimicrobial given empirically for this condition.seen. (f) Give details of vaccines available for these microbial agents. Name two other drugs which can be used for treating this condition (g)Give details of vaccines available for these microbial agents

A 42-year-old female presented to the OPD with complaints of urinary frequency and urgency and pain in the lower abdomen. One month back she was treated for the same complaint. The Urine culture showed significant growth of lactose fermenting colonies which were Gram negative bacilli. a) What is most probable clinical diagnosis. b) What are the various methods of collection of urine for culture. c) Name the causative agents of this condition. d) What is significant bacteriuria. e) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this condition. f) Write four antibiotics used to treat the condition. g) Write the measures used to prevent the infection in catheterized patients

A two-year-old child was brought to casualty with high grade fever, vomiting and drowsiness. On examination, the child had neck rigidity and other signs of meningeal irritation. CSF examination was suggestive of acute bacterial meningitis a) List the bacteria causing acute bacterial meningitis b) Describe the pathogenesis of pneumococcal meningitis c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of pneumococcal meningitis d) Discuss the prevention of pneumococcal meningitis

A 4 year old boy was brought to the emergency with a history of altered sensorium, inability to eat and one episode of seizure in the last 2 days. The child used to play with street dogs. i. What is the likely clinical diagnosis a) Guillain barre syndrome c) Rabies b) ECHO virus encephalitis d) Herpes Simplex encephalitis ii. An antemortem diagnostic method is a) Negri bodies in brain by Immunohistochemistry c) Antibody detection in saliva b) Antigen in corneal smear by immunofluorescence d) RNA in brain by RTPCR iii. Vaccine to prevent rabies in humans is a) Sheep brain vaccine b) Neural vaccine c) Human diploid cell vaccine d) Jeryl Lynn vaccine iv. Rabies virus can be transmitted to humans by all of the following routes EXCEPT a) Bite by infected bats c) Cornea transplantation b) Inhalation of virus containing aerosols d) Consumption of raw milk of infected animals v. The protein which acts as virulence factor is the a) Nucleoprotein b) Glycoprotein G c) Matrix protein d) Hemagglutinin Question numbers (vi)-(x) are multiple response type questions. Read the statements & mark the answers appropriately. vi. Cholera 1) Has potential to cause pandemics 2) Hanging drop test of stool sample helps in rapid diagnosis 3) Causes dysentery in children 4) Can present as hypovolemic shock in severe cases leading to death a) 1, 2, 3 are correct b) 1, 3, 4 are correct c) 2, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 4 are correct vii. Bile-stained eggs are seen in infection with 1) Ascaris 2) Hookworm 3) Trichuris 4) Taenia a) 1, 2, 3 are correct b) 1, 2, 4 are correct c) 1, 3, 4 are correct d) 2, 3, 4 are correct viii. Hand foot and mouth disease is NOT caused by 1) Cytomegalovirus 2) Coxsackie virus 3) Calicivirus 4) ECHO virus a) 1, 2, 3 are correct b) 2, 3, 4 are correct c) 1, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 4 are correct ix. This is NOT a mode of transmission of Schistosoma hematobium 1) Bite of Tsetse fly 2) Consumption of vegetables contaminated with metacercaria 3) Penetration of cercaria through the skin 4) Blood transfusion a) 2, 3, 4 are correct b) 1, 2, 3 are correct c) 1, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 4 are correct x. A 28 year old male, following consumption of canned food, came with complaints of difficulty in swallowing, blurred vision, which soon progressed to respiratory paralysis. This bacteria is NOT the likely etiology. 1) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli 2) Clostridium botulinum 3) Campylobacter jejuni 4) Yersinia enterocolitica a) 1, 2, 4 are correct b) 1, 3, 4 are correct c) 2, 3, 4 are correct d) 1, 2, 3 are correct Question numbers (xi) – (xv) are single response types xi. Which of the following parasites causes keratitis. a) Acanthamoeba b) Naegleria c) Balamuthia d) Sappinia xii. Meningitis caused by the following agents can be prevented by vaccination EXCEPT a) Neisseria meningitidis c) Hemophilus influenzae b) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Listeria monocytogenes xiii. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by Mycobacterium a) marinum b) kansasii c) ulcerans d) abscessus xiv. River blindness is caused by a) Brugia malayi b) Oncocerca volvulus c) Loa loa d) Mansonella species xv. Diphtheria vaccine is a a) Subunit vaccine b) Toxoid vaccine c) Whole cell vaccine d) Recombinant vaccine Question numbers (xvi) – (xx) consists of two Statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below. xvi. A: Whooping cough is caused by Bordetella pertussis. R: Whooping cough is mainly seen in adults. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true xvii. A: Specific antivirals are available to treat Japanese Encephalitis. R: Japanese Encephalitis is the most common cause of vaccine preventable encephalitis in Asia. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true xviii. A: Cryptococcus neoformans cannot be cultured. R: Rapid diagnosis of Cryptococcal meningitis can be done on CSF sample by India Ink preparation. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true xix. A: Hepatitis B virus is preventable by vaccination. R: Hepatitis B can be transmitted parenterally. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true xx. A: Plasmodium falciparum is the species of Plasmodium producing most serious complications. R: Malaria is caused by bite of female Anopheles mosquito a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A d) A is false but R is true

A 30-year-old previously healthy woman presented to Medicine OPD with malaise, low- grade fever, nausea, vomiting, aversion to food, mild itching since one month. Serum showed elevated levels of AST and ALT and presence of antiHBcIgM. (a) What is the probable clinical diagnosis. (b) Which phase is the patient in. (c) What are the common etiological agents for a similar condition. (d) In the above case scenario, what are the other serological investigations required. (e) How does one get this infection. (f) What is the long-term concern in this infection. (g) How does one prevent this infection. Give details.

Read the following clinical history and answer the following questions A 45 years old diabetic male was hospitalized in ICU isolation ward for the following complaints. High fever for two days, rapidly progressive sore throat, cough, dyspnoea and headache of one day duration. He gave history of returning from a country which was notified for the presence of a pandemic flu like disease. • What is the most probable diagnosis. • What specimen do you collect from the patient • How do you transport it to laboratory • How will you proceed with the specimen in the microbiology lab for the proper lab diagnosis. • What is the role of vaccine in preventing this disease

A 25 year old male presented to the emergency department with history of fever and intense headache for the past 4 days and vomiting since two days. On examination patient has signs of meningitis. Grams stain on the CSF demonstrated gram positive lanceolate displococci

A 5-year-old boy presented to paediatric OP with fever, sore throat, difficulty in swallowing. He has no records of vaccination O/E cervical lymphadenopathy and white patch seen on the tonsil. (a) What is your clinical diagnosis. (b) Name the causative organism. (c) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition. (d) How do you confirm the diagnosis in the laboratory. (e) How do you manage the child. (f) What are the public health measures you have to take to prevent the spread of infection. (1+1+3+4+3+3)

A young adult male came to skin O.P with complaints of painless indurated ulcer on the penis. He gives history of unprotected sex with multiple partners. • What is your provisional diagnosis. Name the causative agent • Describe in detail the pathogenesis of this disease • How do you confirm the diagnosis in the laboratory • How do you treat the patient • What are the complications of this condition

Define sterilization. Classify methods of sterilization. Describe in detail moist methods below 100˚C, above 100˚C.

Classify hypersensitivity. Describe the pathogenesis of each one of them with examples. Draw diagrams wherever necessary

Describe the mechanism of cell mediated immune response. Add a note on its applications, detection methods, and name the immunodeficiency diseases associated with defect in cell mediated immunity.

A 20-year-old female with history of multiple blood transfusions presents to outpatient department with fever, malaise, nausea vomiting and yellowish discoloration of urine. The blood examination showed elevated bilirubin and liver enzymes and positive for HBs Ag a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Write the mode of transmission c) Mention the serological markers and their significance d) Write the long term complications of the condition. e) Write the laboratory tests used for the diagnosis f) Mention briefly on post exposure prophylaxis.

An adult male aged 26 years was suffering from severe anemia due to iron deficiency. He was given blood transfusions to correct anemia. Two months later, he developed yellowishness of the sclera and also complained of passing high coloured urine. Answer the following: • Name the probable etiologic agents. • What are the other modes of transmission of this agent. • How will you proceed with the laboratory diagnosis. • How will you protect the individual from acquiring this infection

A 10 years old boy developed multiple vesicles over the lips and buccal mucosa scraping taken from the lesion demonstrated presence of multiple giant cells (Tzanck cells) • What is the most probable diagnosis • Discuss the pathogenesis of the above condition in detail • How do you diagnose this infection in laboratory • Name four other viruses belonging to the same family • What are the other clinical manifestation produced by this virus

A 25-year-old migrant labourer was brought to outpatient department with high grade fever, severe myalgia and retro orbital pain. On examination, he had maculopapular rashes over his body. Blood examination showed thrombocytopenia and NS1 antigen positive a) What is the probable diagnosis and name the aetiological agent b) Write the vector transmitting the agent c) Write four differential diagnosis of the condition d) Write briefly the pathogenesis of the disease e) Write two complications of the condition f) How will you diagnose the infection in the lab g) Mention the preventive measures.

A 5-year-old boy was brought to pediatric casualty with irritability, agitation, abnormal behaviour, difficulty in swallowing liquids and fear of water. His mother informed that he had been bitten by a stray dog two months back. No medical help had been sought at that time. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the causative agent c) Describe the pathogenesis of the condition d) Describe the laboratory diagnosis e) Describe the risk categorization and recommended post exposure prophylaxis of this disease

Laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of Diphtheria

What is Spaulding’s classification. Classify instruments based on that and give examples of disinfectants used for each. Describe in detail any one gaseous high level disinfectant

A 40-year-old male presented to pulmonary medicine outpatient department with history of productive cough of more than 3 weeks duration, evening rise of temperature and loss of weight. Microscopic examination of sputum showed acid fast bacilli. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the etiological agent c) Discuss the pathogenesis of the disease d) Describe the lab diagnosis in detail e) Add a note on the drug resistance seen in this organism f) Name the national programme for this disease

A four-year-old child was brought to paediatric casualty with fever, altered behaviour and difficulty to swallow liquids. Mother gives a history of dog bite two months back and not taking vaccine as per schedule. (a) What is your clinical diagnosis. (b) Name the causative agent. (c) Describe the pathogenesis of this condition. (d) List the samples collected and the methods of antemortem diagnosis of this condition. (e) Name cell culture vaccines for this disease. (f) What is IDRV. Discuss the post exposure vaccination schedule.

Classify Dermatophytes. Describe the laboratory diagnosis.

A 21-year-old female presented with recurrent episodes of seizures, headache and vomiting and vertigo. MRI of the brain showed multiple ring enhancing lesions in the brain parenchyma. The causative agent was thought to be a cestode. (a) What is the probable causative agent. (b) Which is the infective stage of the parasite responsible for the above-mentioned condition. (c) What is the mode of transmission. (d) Name other four cestodes with their definitive hosts. (e) Name two stool concentration methods. (f) How do you treat the patient. (g) How to prevent this infection.

A 45-year-old smoker comes to outpatient department with history of productive cough, evening rise of temperature and loss of weight. Microscopic examination of the sample revealed acid fast bacilli. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis. b) Name the causative agent. c) Write the mode of transmission of the infective agent. d) Discuss the pathogenesis of the disease. e) Describe in detail the laboratory diagnosis of the condition. f) Discuss the drug resistance seen in this organism and the treatment of the resistant forms. g) Name the national programme for this condition.

A 70 year old man was brought to the emergency department with fever, cough, and dyspnoea. Physical examination revealed a dull note on percussion. X-ray chest revealed a patch on the right lung area. The gram stain of sputum sample revealed numerous pus cells and Gram positive lanceolate shaped diplococci. a) What is the clinical diagnosis and what is the probable etiological agent. b) What culture media is used to enable the growth of the organism suspected and how will you confirm the identity of the organism. c) Discuss the virulence factors and pathogenesis of this etiological agent. d) What are the vaccines available for this etiological agent. Discuss.

A 20-year-old woman came to the Medicine OPD with history of fever, fatigue and abdominal discomfort since 4 days. It did not resolve with antipyretics. Samples were collected for the common probable causes of this condition and was confirmed as typhoid fever. (a) What are the common probable causes of the above case scenario. (b) Which is the confirmatory test for typhoid fever. (c) What is the most important instruction to be given for sample collection for the above test. (d) How does one get this infection. (e) Who is a chronic carrier of typhoid. In whom is chronic carriage likely. (f) How to detect chronic carriers. Give details. (g) What is the public health importance of detecting a chronic carrier. (h) Define Multi drug resistant Salmonella Typhi. (i) How to prevent typhoid infection.

Subcutaneous mycosis

Multiple response type questions. Read the statements & mark the answers appropriately

A 40-year-old diabetic man came to medicine O.P with fever, shortness of breath. His family members also give history of fever and sore throat. His oxygen saturation was low and chest x-ray showed diffuse infiltration (a) What is the most likely clinical diagnosis. (b) Name the two common viral agents for this condition. (c) Pathogenesis of the condition which caused the pandemic in 2020 (d) Name the vaccines developed against it, licensed for use in India and describe in detail any one of them. (e) List the samples collected and the tests available for diagnosis of acute condition. (f) Name one oral drug licensed for use in this condition. (1+2+2+6+3+1) Short essays

Type 1 hypersensitivity

A 50-year-old woman, an agriculture worker came with complaints of fever, malaise, headache with yellow discolouration of sclera in eyes for the past 5 days. O/E microalbuminuria. There were floods in her place in the previous week. (a) What is your diagnosis (b) Describe the pathogenesis (c) Lab diagnosis (d) Classify various causes of bloodstream infection with examples.

10-year-old girl presented with migrating joint pain, painless small nodules on the feet, and fever for the past 4 days. O/E murmur was observed on auscultation. ECG showed prolonged PR interval. ESR and CRP were raised. Parents gave a history of repeated sore throat infections earlier. (a) What is your diagnosis (b) Name the causative agent (c) Describe the virulence factors and pathogenesis in detail (d) Describe the lab diagnosis (e) Describe the criteria used for final diagnosis (1+1+5+5+3)

A 12-year-old child complained of high fever (101⁰C), malaise and abdominal pain since 7 days. A blood culture and the Rapid Typhi-dot test was found positive. a) What is most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the causative agent. c) Mode of transmission of the infective agent d) Pathogenesis of the disease condition e) Write the laboratory diagnosis of the disease f) Mention TWO drugs used in the treatment of the disease g) Write TWO complications of the disease h) Mention the prophylaxis

NACO strategies for HIV diagnosis

Four workers from a construction site were admitted in a primary health centre with watery diarrhoea, fatigue and muscle cramps. On examination, they were dehydrated with tachycardia. The stool samples were collected for examination and appeared like rice water. The bacteria isolated in stool culture was comma shaped and motile. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis b) Name the causative agent. c) Write the mode of transmission of the infective agent d) Describe the pathogenesis of the condition e) Write briefly on the laboratory diagnosis f) How will you treat the condition g) Write briefly on the prophylaxis

Type I Hypersensitivity reactions.

Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of a patient suspected of having HIV infection.

Describe the etiological agents, clinical types and laboratory diagnosis of dermatophytes.

Classification of Streptococci with examples. Write about the diseases caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Add a note on laboratory diagnosis.

Lymphatic filariasis.

MRSA – mechanism of resistance, detection and treatment of cases and carriers, prevention.

Describe the aetiology, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytosis.

Monoclonal antibody and its application

A 30 year old female was brought to the hospital with complaints of loss of weight and appetite of 3 months duration. On examination, she was jaundiced and hepatomegaly present. she gave a history of blood transfusion in the past. Lab investigation showed she was HBsAg positive. a) What is the most probable clinical diagnosis. b) What are the different modes of transmission of this agent. c) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of this infection. d) Add a note on the immunoprophylaxis

Quantitative buffy coat examination– principle, applications, advantages and Disadvantages.

Post exposure Prophylaxis for Rabies.

Single response types

What are prions. Name human prion diseases. Discuss in detail any one of them.

Enumerate moist heat methods of sterilization. Write in detail about any one method

Laboratory diagnosis of bacterial meningitis

Describe various virulence factors in bacteria with examples.

Ethylene oxide and plasma sterilization

Enumerate the methods of moist heat sterilization. Write briefly on the principle, application and sterilization control of laboratory autoclave.

Entamoeba histolytica.

Write the functions of HICC (Hospital Infection Control Committee). Add a note on antimicrobial stewardship

Describe the pathogenesis and prophylaxis of Varicella Zoster virus infection

Antigen presenting cells.

Biomedical waste management

Describe the laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of tetanus

Describe the etiology, specimen collection and laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infection.

Name TWO pathogenic free living amoeba and the infection caused by each of them

Discuss laboratory diagnosis of LRTI.

A 20 year old female college student presents with fever, sore throat and cervical lymphadenopathy. Paul Bunnel test was positive and peripheral blood examination reveals atypical lymphocytes. The presentation is most likely caused by a. Cytomegalovirus b. Epstein-Barr virus c. Adeno virus d. Rhino virus

Discuss the pathogenesis, antemortem lab diagnosis and post exposure prophylaxis of Rabies.

List role of complement in health and disease

Describe the indications and different methods of blood culture. Discuss sample collection for blood culture.

Name four dimorphic fungi.

Two Statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate options given below.

Discuss the molecular methods available for the diagnosis of tuberculosis.

Enriched media

Describe principles of genetic engineering and their applications.

Describe the major Hospital Acquired Infections (HAI) types. Add a note on standard precautions

Toxigenicity to Corynebacterium diphtheria is imparted by a. Transformation b. Conjugation c. Transduction d. Transposition

Write the pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Hydatid disease

Lacto Phenol Cotton Blue mount (LPCB mount)

Causative agents of mycetoma

Enumerate the classes of immunoglobulins. Write briefly on structure and properties of IgM

Describe the etiology and pathogenesis of gas gangrene

Define enriched media with two example

Disc diffusion method of antibiotic susceptibility testing

List molecular methods used in laboratory diagnosis of infections. Briefly mention principle of each method. Discuss advantages and disadvantages of each method.

Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria

Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, lab diagnosis and immunization of chicken pox.

Complications of Dengue fever

What is antigenic shift and drift in influenza virus. What are the implications. What are the risk factors for complications following influenza infection

The drug of choice for pneumonia caused by Pneumocytosis jirovecii is a. Cotrimoxazole b. Amphotericin B c. Itraconazole d. Flucytosine

Describe the pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis.

Define Selective media with two examples

Define pandemic. Name any four pandemics. Describe in detail strategies taken for their control.

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing methods – types with respective principle, interpretation, purpose of selective reporting.

Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis

A 40-year-old previously healthy adult, presented to the medicine outpatient department with malaise, fatigue, low grade fever, nausea and aversion to food. She complains of itching all over the body. She provides history of multiple blood transfusions following a road traffic accident eight months ago. The anti HBc IgM was positive. AST and ALT (Liver enzymes) were elevated a) What is the probable clinical diagnosis b) What is the source of infection in this patient. Name other modes of transmission of this infectious agent. c) Enumerate the serological markers in different phases of this infection, support with appropriate diagrams. d) Write on a note on prevention of this infection

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of polio.

Name different methods of antimicrobial susceptibility testing

Sporicidal disinfectants

Describe various modes of biomedical waste disposal with examples. Add a note on treatment of waste disposal

Define food poisoning, Enumerate the organism causing food poisoning. Describe the lab diagnosis

Enumerate the various classes of immunoglobulins. Write briefly on the structure and properties of IgG

Cysticercus cellulosae in man.

Write briefly on the pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Ascariasis.

Describe the etiology, clinical types and laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytosis

Transport media with TWO examples

Discuss applications of monoclonal antibodies.

Name four organisms causing congenital infections and describe in detail any one of them.

Pathogenesis of Rabies

Explain the reasons that helped successful eradication of smallpox.

CSF analysis reveals elevated leukocyte count with predominant neutrophils, decreased glucose levels and increased protein levels. The presentation most like refers to a. Normal CSF analysis b. Pyogenic meningitis c. Viral meningitis d. Tuberculous meningitis

Classify Herpes viruses. Discuss the clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Epstein Barr virus infection.

Clinical significance of IgM

List FOUR clinically important anaerobes. List samples to be collected. Describe the sample collection process.

Discuss mechanisms of innate immunity.

35-year-old male came to the surgery out-patient department with vague abdominal discomfort and intermittent pain in the right upper quadrant for the past four months. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and hepatomegaly. Ultrasound examination of the abdomen revealed a large, well defined cystic lesion in the right lobe of the liver. The patient has no significant history in the past. He has a fondness for stray dogs in his neighborhood. a) What is the probable diagnosis. b) Describe the life cycle of the etiological agent and name the intermediate host in the lifecycle c) Name two organs other than liver where these cysts can occur d) Describe the treatment options for this patient e) Add a note on prevention of this infection

Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis – etiology, mode of transmission, laboratory diagnosis

Hapten

Classify nematodes, Enumerate intestinal nematodes. Add a note on life cycle, pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Hookworm.

Difference between bacterial and amoebic dysentery. Add a note on morphology and lab diagnosis of E.histolytica

Example of Precipitation reaction is a. Widal test b. VDRL test c. Weil Felix reaction d. Paul Bunnel test

Outline steps in biomedical waste management.

Gamma interferon.

Hepatitis B vaccine

Enumerate various methods of moist heat sterilisation. Add a note on laboratory Autoclave.

Pathogenesis, clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis

Enumerate FOUR sporicidal disinfectants

Role of complement in immune response

Describe the etiopathogenesis and lab diagnosis of kala- azar.

Mucocutaneous candidiasis

Cryptococcal meningitis – risk factors, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis

The etiological agent of Hand foot and mouth disease is a. Coxsackie virus b. Polio virus c. Herpes simplex virus d. Enterovirus 72

Halophilic Vibrios

Primary Amoebic meningoencephalitis – discuss etiology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis.

List antigen presenting cells and discuss their role in immune response.

Lab diagnosis of toxoplasmosis

A 25 year old presented to the emergency with breathlessness, cough and fever since five days.The CT of the chest revealed bilateral ground glass opacities. A working diagnosis of viral pneumonia was made and samples were sent for confirmation of the etiological agent. a) What are the samples to be collected and tests performed for confirming the diagnosis of COVID-19 (1+2) b) What are the precautions to be taken for sample collection. Add a note on transmission based precautions in the community

Discuss laboratory diagnosis of dimorphic fungi.

Transformation

Enumerate viruses causing gastroenteritis. Add a note on Morphology, Pathogenesis ,Lab diagnosis and prevention of rotavirus infection

What are the differences between Hepatitis A virus and Hepatitis B virus. Describe various markers of HBV in detail and their applications

Asthma is a manifestation of a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction c. Type III hypersensitivity reaction d. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

Define Health Care Associated Infection. Mention the various types of HAI and their preventive measures.

Draw and label Hook Worm Ova.

Classify immunity. Add a note on passive immunity.

Laboratory diagnosis of pneumococcal meningitis

Name any TWO live vaccines

Name TWO bacteria causing gas gangrene

What are the laboratory tests available to detect Hepatitis C in a suspected patient

Lymphogranuloma venereum.

List risk factors that can lead to disseminated herpes infection and the common manifestations seen.

One of the following Arboviral infection is not seen in India a. Dengue b. Japanese encephalitis c. Yellow fever d. West Nile encephalitis

Define Pandemic and give two examples

Mode of transmission, clinical presentation and laboratory diagnosis of Nipah virus infection

List four parasitic infections especially seen in immunocompromised patients.

Draw and label Ancyclostoma ova

Etiology and laboratory diagnosis of Cholera.

Name four bacteria causing gas gangrene.

Natural passive immunity

Artificial passive immunity with two examples

Structure of Gram negative cell wall with diagram.

PCR – Principle

Alpha fetoprotein levels are elevated in a. Hepatoma b. Colon cancer c. Prostate cancer d. Tongue cancer

Write the applications of ELISA test

Write the serological markers of Hepatitis B virus infection and their significance.

Polio vaccines and current vaccination schedule for polio

Laboratory tests for detecting infections by dimorphic fungi

Name TWO agents causing Mycetoma

Pathognomonic feature of Rabies of a. Negri bodies b. Guarnieri bodies c. Molluscum boides d. Torres body

Differentiate between antigenic shift and antigenic drift

Name FOUR antigen- antibody reactions

Shigellosis.

Laboratory diagnosis of invasive candidiasis.

Lab diagnosis of filariasis caused by Brugia malayi

A 35 year male presented with cough, fever since the past three weeks and weight loss. Blood counts were normal with raised ESR. Chest x-ray showed right upper lobe consolidation. a) What is the clinical diagnosis and probable causative agent. b) Describe the laboratory diagnosis with special emphasis on rapid diagnostic methods.

Describe collection of specimens in a case of suspected leprosy.

Non – Gonococcal Urethritis (NGU)

Define significant bacteriuria. Two examples of bacteria causing UTI

Principle of presumptive coliform testing and its interpretation.

Cold sterilization is done by a. Gamma rays b. Infrared rays c. Steam sterilization d. Ultraviolet rays

List FOUR gaseous sterilants and write two uses of any one of them

Opportunistic viral infections in AIDS patients.

Giardia lamblia

Name TWO cell wall acting antibiotics

Discuss the beneficial effects of normal flora.

A CSF sample was received in microbiology lab without requisition form. How will you manage this situation

Name TWO complications of varicella zoster virus infection

Vaccine against Varicella zoster virus.

Taxoplasma gondii infection in AIDS patients usually presents as a. Lymphadenopathy b. Encephalitis c. Chorioretinitis d. Pneumonia

Name two horizontal gene transfer method in bacteria

Importance of biofilms in management of infections.

List four parasites causing lesions in the brain. Describe the life cycle of any one of them.

Enumerate four infections produced by streptococcus pyogenes and the virulence factors.

Acid fast staining

Draw the structure of HIV and label. Add a note on its transmission

Drug of choice for enteric fever is a. Ceftriaxone b. Ciprofloxacin c. Amoxicillin d. Cotrimoxazole

Enumerate FOUR fungi causing systemic mycosis. Write briefly the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them.

Give two examples of antifungal drugs.

Segregation of biomedical waste.

Etiology, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Mycetoma

Name TWO modes of transmission of infection with examples for each

IgG (Immunoglobulin G)

Secondary immune response

Sporotrichosis.

Hepatitis B surface antigen

A Gram negative bacillus with lactose fermenting colonies on MacConkey agar was isolated from a patient presented with urinary tract infection. It was oxidase negative, catalase positive, indole positive, methyl red reaction positive. The pathogen is most likely a. Klebsiella pneuminiae b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Proteus vulgaris d. Escherichia coli

CD4+ T lymphocytes

List, in tabular form, the CSF parameters, in normal CSF and in pyogenic, viral and tubercular meningitis.

List the various roles of Cell mediated immunity with specific examples.

Name four markers of Hepatitis-B infection.

List four bacterial zoonotic infections. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them

Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia.

Classify non – tuberculous mycobacteria giving examples

Add a note on lab diagnosis of Pernicious Malaria.

Lab diagnosis of Ring worm infection

A young rice field farmer develops high grade fever, jaundice and oliguria. Physical examination reveals conjunctival haemorrhage, petechiae and purpura. Reneal and liver function tests were found to be abnormal. The presentation is most likely caused by a. Treponema pallidum b. Leptospira interrogans c. Borrelia recurrentis d. Brucella melitensis

Define intermediate host with an example.

Define intermediate host. Give two examples

Enumerate four fungi causing systemic mycosis. Add a note on laboratory diagnosis of Histoplasmosis.

A CSF sample for culture was refrigerated and sent to microbiology laboratory. Write the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken

Mention contributions of Robert Koch

Write TWO mechanisms of autoimmunity

List sources of healthcare-associated infections and respective preventive measures

Classification of fungus with examples.

Rapid diagnostic methods of Malaria

A swab is collected from an abscess in the ward. The details of the patient on the sample container do not match those on the request form. Discuss the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken.

Drug of choice of Syphilis is a. Penicillin b. Ciprofloxacin d. Ceftriaxone d. Azithromycin

How will you instruct a patient with suspected lower respiratory tract infection to collect a sputum sample.

Healthcare associated infections – definition, major types, four micro-organisms transmitted through contact.

Pulse polio programme.

A biopsy was taken from a patient, clinically diagnosed with acid peptic disease, during endoscopy. a) Name the site from where the biopsy most likely was taken. b) Name the etiological agent and list two mechanisms by which the agent can produce this condition. c) Describe a rapid test done on the biopsy material for the above etiological agent.

A CSF sample, collected in the ward by lumbar puncture, does not reach the laboratory for processing for bacterial culture. Discuss the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken.

NACO strategies for HIV testing

Best prognostic indicator in HIV infection is a. HIV RNA load b. CD4 T cell count c. CD8 T cell count d. p24 antigen

Write FOUR mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance in bacteria with examples.

Rota virus vaccine.

Name four mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance in bacteria.

Name any TWO skin and soft tissue infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus

Sterilization controls used in autoclave

Which is the high-risk group for acquiring fulminant hepatitis with Hepatitis E virus.

Name TWO oncogenic DNA viruses

Name the selective medium for Nessieria gonorrhea.

List TWO common viral causes of community acquired pneumonia.

Clue cells are useful in diagnosis of a. Vaginal candidiasis b. Trichomonal vaginitis c. Bacterial vaginosis d. Chancroid

Name two bacterial zoonotic diseases.

How is Toxoplasma gondii transmitted. Add a note on the laboratory diagnosis of congenital Toxoplasma infection.

What is the mode of transmission of visceral leishmaniasis.

Name four Arbo viruses

Prevention of transmission of HIV from mother to child.

List methods of transmission of human anthrax.

Lyme disease

Name 4 parasitic infections affecting the blood

A 25 year old male presents with fever, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, weight loss, Blood test reveals pancytopenia and examination of bone marrow aspirate by Giemsa stain reveals amastigote forms inside macrophages. The most likely diagnosis is a. Visceral leishmaniasis b. African sleeping sickness c. Chaga's disease d. Babesiosis

Name TWO tests used for diagnosis of HIV infection in window period.

Name four parasites causing anemia.

Draw neat labeled diagram of microfilaria bancrofti

Name TWO viruses that can cause Hepatocellular carcinoma.

Name ONE parasite affecting lungs

Which organism is identified by Nagler’s reaction.

What is the mechanism of action of the virulence factor in diphtheria.

Most common cause of non gonococcal urethritis is a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Mycoplasma hominis c. Ureaplasma urealyticum d. Candida albicans

Name two fungi that cause subcutaneous mycosis.

Modes of transmission and laboratory diagnosis of Monkey pox (M Pox)

Which is the microbe causing lymphatic filariasis.

Rabies vaccines.

Which arm of immune response plays an important role in controlling nocardiosis.

Name two methods to test antibiotic susceptibility.

Name two rapid tests used for diagnosis of malaria.

Contaminated fried rice is associated with food poisoning with onset within 1-6 hours is caused by a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Bacillus cereus c. Clostridium perfringens d. Campylobacter jejuni

A sample was received in laboratory for blood culture from medical ward and it was found to be wrongly labelled. What measures will you adopt in such a situation.

Name four contributions of Louis Pasteur

Name TWO fungi causing Keratomycosis

Name TWO hemorrhagic fever causing viruses prevalent in Kerala.

Name TWO fungi causing otomycosis

Name two non –sporing, anaerobic gram negative bacilli.

Schedule and dosage of DPT vaccine.

A 25 year old sexually active male presents with genital ulcers which are painful, multiple, tiny and vesicular in nature. He gives a history of similar episode in the past 1 year. The most like disease is a. Donovanosis b. Lymphongranuloma venereum c. Genital herpes d. Chancroid

Write the mode of transmission of Japanese encephalitis.

List FOUR oncogenic viruses.

What is the stage in the life cycle of trypanosomes infective to Man.

A CSF sample did not reach the laboratory. Discuss the impact on patient care and how this can be prevented.

Enumerate two bacteria causing neonatal meningitis.

Name two immunosuppressive agents.

Name any two viruses causing diarrhoeal disease

Bacillary dysentery in India is commonly caused by a. Shigella flexneri b. Shigella boydii c. Shigella sonnei d. Shigella dysenteriae

Name the antibody giving local mucosal immunity.

Name TWO human prion diseases

Name one rapid laboratory test to diagnose Candida albicans.

Name TWO etiological agents of non-gonococcal urethritis

Name two viruses which cause microcephaly.

List two common bacterial causes of healthcare acquired pneumonia.

A 20 year old male presents with keratitis. We mount examination of Corneal scrapings reveals trophozoites with spine like pseudopodia, The most likely pathogen is a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Trypanosome cruzi c. Acanthamoeba species d. Onchocerca volvulus

Satellitism.

What are dimorphic fungi.

Name the most common yeast causing meningitis in a HIV positive patient. Name a special stain used for its detection in CSF sample. Draw a neat labelled diagram of its appearance under the microscope using the special stain. Name one rapid test to identify this yeast in the CSF sample.

List two most common bacterial causes of STDs.

Name two viral disease transmitted by ticks.

Name any two discoveries of Robert Koch

Highest mortality in pregnancy is associated with a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis E d. Hepatitis C

Name TWO transport media.

Name two antigen presenting cells.

Causative agent of pityriasis versicolor

Name TWO viral vaccines that can prevent carcinoma.

Name TWO etiological agents causing opportunistic mycoses

Name two zoonotic diseases.

What is the pathognomonic clinical feature of measles.

The classic triad of congenital rubella syndrome does not include a. Ear defect b. Ocular defects c. Cardiac defects d. CNS defects

Write two identifying features of Cryptococcus neoformans.

Clinical importance of plasmids in bacteria with two examples.

Hepatitis C virus- modes of transmission and laboratory diagnosis.

List methods of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii.

Name two hepatitis viruses that are transmitted by Faeco-oral route.

Biological control for autoclave

Scalded skin syndrom is mediated by a. Epidermolytic toxin b. Hemolysin c. Enterotoxin d. Deoxyribonuclease

Name TWO mechanisms of auto-immunity.

Name two antibiotics inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis

Name two bacterial commensals found in the gastrointestinal tract.

Name TWO zoonotic infections

Which viral disease is acquired from camel.

List modes of transmission of molluscum contagiosum.

One of the following is not a oncogenic virus a. Epstein barr virus b. Cytomegalo virus c. Human herpes virus 8 d. Human papilloma virus

Name two causative agents of keratomycosis.

List FOUR clinical clues associated with anaerobic infections.

Nipah virus – modes of transmission and outbreak prevention.

Name two viral congenital infections.

Name any two fungi causing Mycetoma foot.

A 10 year old boy presents with a tender, bright red, subcutaneous swelling on right cheek. The lesion is indurated with peau d'orange texture of the involved skin and is associated with fever and chills.The most likely clinical diagnosis is a. Erysipelas b. Impetigo c. Carbuncle d. Furuncle

Name TWO antiseptics.

Name TWO biologic agents used as bioweapons

Define acute phase reactants. Give one example.

Name TWO bacterial agents causing atypical pneumonia.

Which parasite cause calcified cysts in muscles.

Name two viruses which can cause latent infections.

The drug of choice for rat bite fever is a. Penicillin b. Ciprofloxacin c. Ceftriaxone d. Azithromycin

A CSF sample was received in microbiology lab for culture. The label in the specimen container was not matching with the specimen referral form. How will you manage the situation.

What is the role of memory cells in immune response.

Name four viruses causing hemorrhagic fever.

Name two protozoa that commonly cause opportunistic infection in AIDS.

Name any two parasites causing anaemia

A HIV positive patient develops persistent, profuse diarrhea. Stool examination by acid fast stain by kinyoun's method reveals round, uniformly stained oocyst which is 4-6 microns size. The most likely etiological agent is a. Cyclospora b. Cryptosporidium c. Cystoisospora d. Giardia

Name the infective form of Entamoeba histolytica.

A blood sample received from pediatric ward for culture was found missing in the laboratory. What measures will you adopt to handle such a situation.

Causative agent of lymphogranuloma venereum

Give an example of artificial passive immunity.

Name the causative agent and vector of plague

Which fungal disease is spread by pigeon droppings.

Define mycetoma and give examples of two causative agents.

Plague is transmitted by a. Sand fly b. Rat flea c. Hard tick d. Soft tick

List four causes of nongonococcal urethritis.

What is mucosal immunity.

Name two fungi causing sub cutaneous mycosis

Name two non-bile stained eggs.

Name any two superantigens.

A 30 year old male presents with acute pain in the right hypochondrium associated with high grade fever. Ultrasound guided liver aspiration revealed thick chocolate brown colored pus. Last portion of the aspirated pus demonstrated actively motile trophozoites with pseudopodia. The most likely etiological agent is a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Echinococcus granulosus c. Fasciola hepatica d. Clonorchis sinensis

What is an adjuvant. Give one example.

Name two bacteria with capsule.

Name TWO parasites causing cutaneous larva migrans

What does “N95” refer to in a respirator.

Name TWO bacteria causing neonatal meningitis

Name the organism which causes acute osteomyelitis.

Name the reservoir of infection and method of transmission of Penicillium marneffei infection.

Name one free living amoebae and the infection caused by it.

Name the disinfectant (with %) to be used for a large spill.

Name two clinical types of dermatophytoses.

Name two parasitic disease where man acts as intermediate host.

Name TWO complications of malignant malaria.

Name the etiologic agent of Hydatid disease and mention the definitive and intermediate host

Name TWO parasites causing lung infection

Name two airborne infections.

Name TWO viruses causing congenital infections

Name two tissue nematodes.

Sample, from the respiratory tract, received for Ziehl Neelsen stain is found to be mainly saliva. Discuss the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken.

Name two narrow spectrum antibiotics.

If the urine sample, for bacterial culture, collected by the patient is submitted to the laboratory the next day, is it acceptable. Discuss the correct decision and the appropriate action to be taken.

Name two dimorphic fungi.

Name two vaccines used that prevent cancers.

Name TWO halophilic vibrios.

Name two complications of Enteric fever

Laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.

Louis pasteur

Bacterial growth curve.

Larva migrans.

Coagulase test

Mycetoma.

Laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria

Inclusion bodies

Dengue fever.

Laboratory diagnosis of Rabies.

Postexposure prophylaxis of Rabies

Cryptococcus neoformans.

IgG antibody

Laboratory diagnosis of HCV infection

Neurocysticercosis.

Dimorphic fungi.

1. Laboratory diagnosis of faucial diphtheria

Autoclave.

Tissue culture

Rhinosporidiosis.

Mechanisms of autoimmune disease

Ethylene oxide sterilization.

Gaseous disinfectants.

Cryptococcosis

Enumerate the viruses causing respiratory tract infections. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of viral Influenza

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay.

Mechanisms of Innate Immunity

Molluscum contagiosum.

Laboratory diagnosis of pertussis

Laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B.

Laboratory diagnosis of amoebic dysentery.

Laboratory diagnosis of Mycetoma

Prophylaxis and laboratory diagnosis of COVID-19

Describe principle, types and applications of ELISA.

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Cholera

Koch’s postulates

ELISA

Lab diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.

Hydatid cyst.

Dermatophytes.

Anaerobic culture media

Write a note on Kyasanur Forest disease.

Describe the morphology and life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides

Aseptic meningitis

Monoclonal antibodies

Bacterial conjugation and its implications

Write a note on Dengue.

Laboratory diagnosis of brucellosis

Write a note on Japanese encephalitis.

Describe passive immunity.

Enrichment media

Infections caused by Candida albicans and its laboratory diagnosis.

Write about lab diagnosis of hepatitis B virus

Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of aspergilloma

Gram negative cell wall.

Antibiotic susceptibility testing methods for bacteria

Laboratory diagnosis of Malaria

Bacterial spore and methods of killing the spores.

Write briefly about clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of Tubercular meningitis

Draw a neat labelled diagram of a bacterial cell and write one function of each component

1. Laboratory diagnosis of Bacterial vaginosis.

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Japanese encephalitis

Anaphylaxis

Describe tuberculin type of delayed hypersensitivity.

Auto immunity.

Write a note on Campylobacter jejuni.

Etiology and laboratory diagnosis of Lympho Granuloma Venereum (LGV)

Immune prophylaxis of polio

List the differences between Taenia solium and Taenia saginata

Cryptococcal meningitis

ELISA – Principles, types and applications

2. Pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of trichomoniasis

Clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis

Food poisoning.

Pathogenesis & prevention of tetanus.

IgG

T.S.I media

Amoebiasis.

Lab diagnosis of Dermatophytosis.

Write about the lab diagnosis of mycetoma

Viral diarrhoea.

Describe the life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Hydatid cyst disease

Mention different types of graft rejection and suggest measures to prevent rejection

Define cytokines and discuss their role in immune response

Mention the various disinfectants used in hospitals and their uses

2. Laboratory diagnosis and treatment of Lympho-Granuloma Venereum (LGV).

Laboratory diagnostic strategy of pulmonary tuberculosis as per National Tuberculosis Elimination Program

Prophylaxis against Tetanus.

Describe classes of major histocompatibility complex and their role in Immunity.

Laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis of Japanese B Encephalitis.

Describe the structure and functions of IgM antibody.

Etiology, pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of Japanese B encephalitis

Write a note on Cryptococcosis.

Discuss lab diagnosis of malaria

Modes of transmission of infections

Delayed type hypersensitivity

Write a note on Candidiasis.

3. Laboratory diagnosis of UTI

Write a note on Aspergillosis.

Write short notes on widal test

Describe the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides

MDR – tuberculosis.

a. Mention the differences between innate and acquired immunity

Give an outline of laboratory diagnosis of bacterial infections

Type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Define immunity. Describe active immunity in detail

3. Discuss Laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections.

a. A lady aged 28 years presented with recurrent multiple painful vesicular lesions of external genitalia. Giemsa-stained smear of the base of the lesions showed multinucleated giant cells with faceted nuclei. Describe pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of this condition

Bacillary dysentry.

A child presents with vesicular rashes. Rashes are bilateral, diffuse and centripetal in distribution. Fever appears with each crop of eruption. What is the probable clinical diagnosis & discuss the prevention of this infection

Chemical disinfectants.

Describe major histocompatibility complex.

Standard precautions in health care delivery

Write about Rota virus.

Enumerate dimorphic fungi and write the laboratory diagnosis of any one of them

Dimorphic fungi causing infections

An Intravenous drug abuser develops fever with chills, myalgia, cardiac murmur. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococci aureus was isolated from Blood culture. Describe pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of this condition

Write about antigenic variations in influenza virus.

Gonococcal uretheritis

Hand hygiene

Write about Human papilloma virus.

Types and segregation of Biomedical waste.

Toxins and virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus.

Life cycle and lab diagnosis of Ascaris Lumbricoides.

Poliomyelitis

Laboratory diagnosis of COVID-19 infection

Laboratory diagnosis of dermatophytosis

Uses of detecting IgM antibodies.

A boy has intermittent fever with chills and rigors since 5 days. His spleen is enlarged and palpable. Peripheral blood smear showed ring-shaped structures inside the RBCs. Describe the life cycle and outline the laboratory diagnosis

Herd immunity.

Ventilator Associated Pneumonia

Discuss pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory diagnosis of Dengue fever.

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Leptospirosis

IgM.

Differentiate eumycotic mycetoma from actinomycotic mycetoma

Laboratory diagnosis of dengue haemorrhagic fever.

Robert Koch.

Clinical manifestation and laboratory diagnosis of Polio.

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Covid-19 disease

Clinical manifestations of Coxsackie viruses

Laboratory diagnosis of Mucormycosis

Infectious mononucleosis.

Laboratory diagnosis of Falciparum malaria

Laboratory diagnosis of lymphatic filariasis

Clinical manifestations of Herpes simplex.

Life cycle of Paragonimuswestermani and its laboratory diagnosis

Clinical manifestations of Measles

Mechanisms and pathogenesis anaphylaxis.

Give an outline of laboratory diagnosis of fungal infections.

Laboratory diagnosis of gonococci.

Differences between active and passive immunity

Paragonimus westermani.

Write the clinical feature and lab diagnosis of dengue infection

Describe the laboratory diagnosis of candidiasis

An elderly man has painful erythematous mucosa of oral cavity and tongue, covered with white patches. Gram positive budding yeast-like organism was demonstrated in the swab taken from patch. Describe etiopathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of this condition

Discuss the mechanisms of drug resistance among bacteria with examples

Adult immunization.

Laboratory diagnosis of bacillary dysentery

Laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary TB.

Clinical features, complications and laboratory diagnosis of Dengue

Laboratory diagnosis of Shigellosis

Write the laboratory diagnosis of gonococcal infection.

Sequence of events that occur following entry of quadri-nucleate cyst of Entamoeba histolytica into the gut

Diagnosis, treatment and prophylaxis of Gas Gangrene

Mucormyosis.

Determinants of antigenicity

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of rabies

Describe the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infection

Classify protozoan infections with examples

b. Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis E infection.

Pathogenicity of HIV.

Mention the causative agents and discuss the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections

Bacillary dysentry-causes and lab diagnosis.

Treatment and prophylaxis of pulmonary tuberculosis

Histoplasmosis.

Morphology of influenza virus

What is bacterial growth curve? Give details about factors affecting growth

Clinical features and life cycle of Toxoplasmosis.

Write about the clinical features and lab diagnoses of COVID infection

Dengue infections - epidemiology and laboratory diagnosis

Genetic mechanisms of drug resistance

b. Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis A

Write briefly on Sporotrichosis

Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis.

Prophylaxis of Poliomyelitis.

b. Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hydatid cyst disease

Precipitation reactions.

Imvic reactions

Describe the pathogenesis and the laboratory diagnosis of lepromatous leprosy.

Describe the morphology of bacteria with labelled diagram.

Mechanism of bacterial drug resistance.

Life cycle and laboratory diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis.

Pathogenicity of Neisseria meningitides

Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis

Mechanisms of viral oncogenesis

List any four organisms associated with causing Pyrexia of Unknown Origin (PUO). Describe collection of blood specimen for laboratory diagnosis of PUO

Discuss the preventive measures of surgical site infection.

Acid peptic disease – Causative organisms, pathogenesis and diagnosis

Superficial mycosis