Biochemistry Previous Year Question Papers
106001
101 papers · MBBS · previous-year papers
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry January 2026 (5506 CBME)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry January 2026 (1024 CBME)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry April 2026 (1080 RS3)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry April 2026 (1079 RS3)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry January 2026 (5505 CBME)2026 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KNRUHS MBBS Biochemistry November 2025 (MB2019102 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KNRUHS MBBS Biochemistry September 2025 (MB2019102 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KNRUHS MBBS Biochemistry September 2025 (MB2019101 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KNRUHS MBBS Biochemistry November 2025 (MB2019101 Regular)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2025 (5505 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2025 (5506 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry April 2025 (1079 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2025 (1079 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry April 2025 (1080 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2025 (1080 RS3)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2025 (1024 CBME)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2025 (106001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - January 2025 (106001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2025 (105001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - January 2025 (105001 2010 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - August 2025 (115001 2019 and 2024 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - August 2025 (116001 2019 and 2024 Scheme)2025 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KNRUHS MBBS Biochemistry November 2024 (MB2019101 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KNRUHS MBBS Biochemistry November 2024 (MB2019102 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kaloji Narayana Rao University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2024 (M102A030 SET-B Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry August 2024 (M102A030 SET-A Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry March 2024 (M102A031 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2024 (M102A031 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry August 2024 (M102A031 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry August 2024 (M102A031 SET-B Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2024 (M102A031 SET-B Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry March 2024 (M102A031 SET-D Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry March 2024 (M102A030 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry October 2024 (M102A030 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry August 2024 (M102A030 Regular)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry February 2024 (1024 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry August 2024 (1079 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry February 2024 (1079 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry August 2024 (1080 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry February 2024 (1080 RS3)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry December 2024 (1024 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry February 2024 (1025 CBME)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - January 2024 (105001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - January 2024 (106001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - January 2024 (116001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - January 2024 (115001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2024 (106001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2024 (105001 2010 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2024 (116001 2019 Scheme)2024 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry January 2023 (15A03101 SET-B Regular)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry April 2023 (15A03101 SET-C CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry December 2023 (15A03101 SET-B CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry April 2023 (15A03101 SET-C CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry January 2023 (15A03101 SET-B CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry December 2023 (15A03101 SET-B CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry February 2023 (1025 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry February 2023 (1079 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry February 2023 (1080 RS3)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry May 2023 (1024 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry February 2023 (1024 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry November 2023 (1025 CBME)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - February 2023 (106001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - February 2023 (116001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2023 (105001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - May 2023 (116001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - February 2023 (105001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - February 2023 (115001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2023 (106001 2010 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - May 2023 (115001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - November 2023 (115001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - November 2023 (116001 2019 Scheme)2023 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry January / February 2022 (Old Regulations)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry May 2022 (15A03101 SET-C CBME)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry January / February 2022 (SET-A CBME)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry March 2022 (1024 CBME)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry March 2022 (1025 CBME)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry March 2022 (1079 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry May 2022 (1079 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry March 2022 (1080 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- RGUHS MBBS Biochemistry May 2022 (1080 RS3)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - February 2022 (115001 2019 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - February 2022 (106001 2010 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - February 2022 (116001 2019 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - May 2022 (115001 2019 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - February 2022 (105001 2010 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2022 (105001 2010 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - July 2022 (106001 2010 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - May 2022 (116001 2019 Scheme)2022 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry April 2021 (Old Regulations)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- NTRUHS MBBS Biochemistry April 2021 (Old Regulations)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - August 2021 (115001 2019 Scheme)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - March 2021 (106001 2010 Scheme)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - September 2021 (105001 2010 Scheme)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - August 2021 (116001 2019 Scheme)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - March 2021 (105001 Revised)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - March 2021 (115001 2019 Scheme)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - September 2021 (106001 2010 Scheme)2021 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - January 2020 (105001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - January 2020 (106001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - November 2020 (105001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
- KUHS MBBS Biochemistry Previous Question Paper - November 2020 (106001 Revised)2020 · Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery · Kerala University of Health Sciences · Biochemistry
Showing 20 of 1780 questions
Which of the following coenzyme is required for HMP pathway? a) Pyridoxal phosphate b) Biotin c) Thiamine pyrophosphate d) Flavin adenine dinucleotide
The following amino acid can enter the citric acid cycle as oxaloacetate: a. Lysine b. Proline c. Aspartate d. Serine
The number of carbon atoms involved in the osazone formation: a) l and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 5 and 6
Which enzymes contains copper a) Cytochrome P450 b) Cytochrome oxidase c) Cytochrome b5 d) Coenzyme Q
Non-essential amino acids are a) Are not components of tissue proteins b) Adequately synthesized in the body c) Have no role in metabolism d) May be synthesized in the body in diseased states
Plasma proteins which contain more than 4% hexosamine are a) Microglobulins b) Glycoproteins c) Orasomucoids d) Mucoproteins
Cori's cycle transfers a) Glucose from muscles to liver b) Lactate from muscles to liver c) Lactate from the liver to muscles d) Pyruvate from the liver to muscles
Which of the following enzymes requires Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) for its action? a. Argino Succinate lyase b. Argino Succinate synthetase c. Arginase d. Glutaminase
Which complexes are involved when FADH? enters ETC a. Complex |, Il, Ill, IV b. Complex Il, Ill c. Complex II, Ill, IV d. Complex I, Ill, IV
Which of the following is not ahigh energy compound? a) Creatine phosphate b) Glucose 6 phosphate c) Phosphoenol pyruvate d) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
Oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport chain are inhibited by the following compounds, except: a. Carbon monoxide b. Hydrogen cyanide c. Oligomycin d. Pyrophosphate
Polysaccharide which is composed by B-glycosidic bonds: a) Starch b) Glycogen c) Dextrin d) Cellulose
Serum alkaline phosphatase is increasing in a) Hypothyroidism b) Myocardial infarction c) Carcinoma of prostrate d) Bone diseases
Which of the following is a tripeptide? a) Anserine b) Oxytocin c) Glutathione d) Kallidin
Which of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings? a. Aspartate b. Carbamoyl phosphate c. Carbon dioxide d. Glutamate
Long term regulation of enzyme action is affected by: a) Altering the activity of enzyme protein b) Induction and repression of enzyme protein synthesis c) Premature breakdown of enzyme protein d) Partial denaturation of enzyme protein
The coenzyme: a. Increases the affinity of apoenzyme to substrate b. Lowers the activation energy c. Accepts one of the products of the reaction d. Increases the number of active sites of the enzyme
One of the following is an amphipathic lipid: a) Phospholipids b) Fatty acid c) Bile salts d) All of the above
Death due to cyanide poisoning is result of a) Cyanide blocking oxygen transport in blood b) Cyanide hemoglobin complex formation c) Cyanide inhibiting complex of respiratory chain d) Cyanide inhibiting cytochrome oxidase
An amino acid not found in proteins is a) Homocysteine b) Proline c) Lysine d) Histidine
The following points about microfilaments are true except a) They form cytoskeleton with microtubules b) They form intracellular conducting channels c) They provide support and shape d) They are involved in muscle cell contraction
On boiling Benedict's solution is not reduced by a) Fructose b) Lactose c) Maltose d) Sucrose
Glycogen synthase is highly active under the conditions of a. Excess glycogen stores b. Starvation c. High-fat feeding d. High carbohydrate feeding
A constitutive enzyme is: a) Activated by an inducer b) Inhibited by a repressor c) Always present in the cell in the same concentration d) A constituent of the cell membrane
The glycosaminoglycan that serves as an anticoagulant: a) Heparin b) Hyaluronic acid c) Chondroitin sulfate d) Dermatan sulfate
Acute pancreatitis may be diagnosed by estimating serum levels of the enzyme a) Acid phosphatase b) Alanine transaminase c) Amylase d) Alkaline phosphatase
Molecular weight of human albumin is about a) 156,000 b) 90,000 c) 69,000 d) 54,000
Mitochondrial DNA is a) Circular double stranded b) Circular single stranded c) Linear double helix d) None of these
Two sugars which differ from one another only in configuration around a single carbon atom are termed a) Epimers b) Anomers c) Optical isomers d) Stereoisomers
Uses of the NADPH generated from the pentose phosphate pathway are all except a. Steroid synthesis b. Regeneration of glutathione to its reduced state c. Synthesis of fatty acids d. Synthesis of ketone bodies
Insulin favors: a) Gluconeogenesis b) Cholesterol Synthesis c) Lipogenesis d) Ketogenesis
A vitamin not available from plant source: a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin B2 d. Vitamin K
The coenzyme not involved in hydrogen transfer: a) FMN b) FAD c) NADP+ d) FHA
All the following coenzymes are involved in pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction except a) Flavine Adenine Dinucleotide b) Thiamine Pyrophosphate c) Biotin d) Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
The first amino acid incorporated in a polypeptide in a ribosome of a bacterium is a) N formyl methionine b) Methionine c) Alanine d) Glycine
An amino acid that does not take part in a helix formation is a) Histidine b) Tyrosine c) Tryptophan d) Proline
Among the following, the most sensitive indicator of glomerular function is a) Serum Urea b) Serum Creatinine c) Urea Clearance d) Creatinine Clearance 1
Which of the following cofactor is not required by this enzyme to convert pyruvate to Acetyl co A a. Thiamine b. Lipoic acid c. Pantothenic acid d. Pyridoxine
Deficiency of Folic acid leads to: a) Pellagra b) Night Blindness c) Macrocytic Anemia d) Microcytic Anemia
Mac Ardle’s syndrome is due to deficiency of: a. Pyruvate kinase b. Glycogen synthase c. Muscle glycogen phosphorylase d. Debranching enzyme
Esterification of cholesterol occurs at carbon position: a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Which enzyme in glycolytic pathway is inhibited by fluoride ions a) Aldolase b) Enolase c) Hexokinase d) Phospho fructokinase
Which one of the following disorders is characterized by self-mutilated behavior? a) Gouty arthritis b) Psoriasis c) Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome d) Severe combined immunodeficiency
In urea synthesis, the amino acid functions solely as an enzyme activator a) Ornithine b) Citrulline c) N-acetyl glutamate d) Arginine
Which of the following metabolite integrates-glucose and fatty acid metabolism? a) Acetyl CoA b) Pyruvate c) Citrate d) Lactate
The heteropolysaccharide which does not contain uronic acid is a. Keratan sulphate b. Dermatan sulphate c. Chondroitin sulphate d. Hyaluronic acid
Which of the following enzyme generated NADPH? a. Pyruvate carboxylase b. Pyruvate dehydrogenase c. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase d. Lactate dehydrogenase
Which of the following enzyme is inhibited in starvation? a. Alanine transferase b. Glucokinase c. Pyruvate carboxylase d. Carbonic anhydrase
In the feedback regulations, the end product binds at a. Active site b. Allosteric site c. E-S complex d. None of the above
Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA by a) Lactate dehydrogenase b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase c) Pyruvate carboxylase d) Pyruvate kinase
Carnitine is synthesized from a) Lysine and methionine b) Glycine and arginine c) Aspartate and glutamate d) Proline and hydroxyproline
The amino acid which detoxicated benzoic acid to form hippuric acid is a) Alanine b) Glycine c) Serine d) Glutamic acid
Anaemia can occur due to the deficiency of all of the following except: a) Thiamine b) Pyridoxine c) Folic acid d) Cyanocobalamin
Omega = 3 fatty acid is a. Alpha linolenic acid b. Linoleic acid c. Gamma linolenic acid d. Arachidonic acid
Which of the following cannot be converted back to glucose? a. Acetyl CoA b. Lactate c. Alanine d. Propionyl CoA
Which of the following enzyme catalyzes substrate-level phosphorylation? a. Hexokinase b. Phosphofructokinase c. Glycogen phosphorylase d. Pyruvate kinase
Test employed to check the purity of butter through the estimation of volatile fatty acids is a. lodine number b. Reichert Meisel number c. Saponification number d. Acid number
The key enzyme of glycolysis is a) Phosphohexose isomerase b) Phosphofructokinase c) Glucose 6 phosphatase d) Glycolaldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase
One of the following vitamins is associated with purine synthesis a) Folate b) Biotin c) Pyridoxine d) Vitamin B12
The apolipoprotein which forms the integral component of chylomicron is a) B-48 b) C c) D d) B-100
Catalytic activity of salivary amylase requires the presence of a) Chloride ions b) Bromide ions c) lodide ions d) All of these
All the following statement are true with regard to phospholipids, except: a. They can act as antigens b. They have surfactant properties c. They are components of bio membranes d. They are resistant to the action of enzymes
The main apoprotein present in HDL is: a. Apo A1 b. B-100 c. B-48 d. Apo E
The serum lipoprotein with the highest cholesterol content is: a. High-density lipoprotein b. Low-density lipoprotein c. Very low-density lipoprotein d. Chylomicron
The coenzyme directly concerned with the synthesis of biogenic amines a. TPP b. NADP+ c. Biotin d. Pyridoxal phosphate
Nyctalopia is due to deficiency of a) Vitamin K b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin B12
The following nucleoside is used in the treatment of Orotic aciduria a) Thymidine b) Uridine c) Adenosine d) Guanosine
Plasma proteins act as a) Buffers b) Immunoglobulins c) Reserve proteins d) All of these
HMG CoA is formed in the metabolism of a) Cholesterol, ketones and Leucine b) Cholesterol, fatty acid and Leucine c) Lysine, Leucine and Isoleucine d) Ketones, Leucine and Lysine
Biochemical test required for assessing thiamine deficiency is a. FIGLU test b. Xanthurenic acid excretion c. RBC transketolase test d. Ferric chloride test
Which of the below mentioned compound has highest calorific value: a. Glucose b. Amino Acid c. Palmitic acid d. Ethanol
Which of the following is not included in calculating the calorie requirement of an individual? a. BMR b. RO. c.5DA d. Nature of work
Formiminoe glutamic acid is excreted in urine in the deficiency of Vitamin a. Riboflavin b. Folic acid c. Biotin d. Vit C
If the product is more toxic than original compound, which of the following toxin is used a) Conjugation b) Biotransformation c) Detoxification d) Bioactivation
Following all are anticancer drugs, except a) Cisplatin b) Actinomycin BD c) 6-Mercaptopurine d) Azithromycin
NH3 is removed from brain mainly by a) Creatinine formation b) Uric acid production c) Glutamine formation d) Urea formation
All the following statements correctly describe ketone bodies except: a) They may result from starvation b) They are present at high levels in uncontrolled diabetes c) They include — OH B-butyrate and acetone d) They are utilized by the liver during starvation
Calcitriol synthesis involves a. Liver and kidney b. Intestine and kidney c. Only liver d. Only intestine
Negative nitrogen balance is observed in: a. Pregnancy b. Growth period c. Chronic fever d. Convalescence
Lysine is deficient in: a. Cereals (rice and wheat) b. Maize and corn c. Pulses (Bengal gram dal) d. Tapioca (Cassava)
The enzyme that converts trypsinogen to trypsin is a. Secretin b. Chymotrypsin c. Elastase d. Enteropeptidase
Vitamin K is inhibited by a) Isoniazid (INH) b) Avidin c) Methotrexate d) Dicoumarol
The amino acids required for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines are a) Glycine and Aspartate b) Aspartate and Glutamine c) Aspartate and Glutamate d) Glycine and Glutamate
Insulin is made up of a) A single polypeptide chain having 51 amino acid residues b) Asingle polypeptide chain having 84 amino acid residues c) A-chain having 21 and B-chain having 30 amino acid residues d) A-chain having 30 and B-chain having 21 amino acid residues. 1
Phrynoderma is a deficiency of a) Essential fatty acids b) Proteins c) Amino acids d) None of these
Requirement of vitamin E increases with the increasing intake of a. Calories b. Proteins c. PUFA d. Cholesterol
Large dose of Vitamin K in neonate can cause: a. Cyanosis b. Jaundice c. Skin Disorder d. Porphyria
The structure of vitamin A contains: a. Naphthoquinone ring b. Chromane ring c. Beta-ionone ring d. Thiazole ring
Active form of Vitamin D is a. Cholecalciferol b. Ergocalciferol c. Dehydrocholesteral d. Calcitriol
Which of the following enzymes are involved in detoxification a) Decarboxylases b) Cytochrome P450 enzymes c) Transaminases d) Dehydrogenases
The loss of DNA at the end chromosomes is prevented by the action of a) DNA ligase b) Telomerase c) DNA gyrase d) ONA polymerase
Gaucher's disease is due to a deficiency of the enzyme a) Sphingomyelinase b) Glucocerebrosidase c) Galactocerebrosidase d) B-Galactosidase
One of the following amino acid is most frequently found at the active site of several enzymes a. Glycine b. Leucine c. Serine d. Threonine
Heme is converted to bilirubin in: a. Mitochondria b. Microsomes c. Golgi Bodies d. Plasma Membrane
The following enzyme of heme biosynthesis is inhibited by lead: a. ALA dehydratase b. UBG | Synthase c. ALA synthase d. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
Inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to a. H+ b. K+ c. OH- d. All of them
Which of the vitamins listed has no antioxidant property a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin K
Increased gastric HCI secretion is found in a) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome b) Gastric carcinoma c) Pernicious anemia d) Gastritis
Serum lactate dehydrogenase rises in a) Viral hepatitis b) Myocardial infarction c) Carcinomatosis d) All of these
In normal condition which LDH isoenzyme is predominantly found in serum a. LDH-1 b. LDH-2 c. LDH-3 d. LDH-4
The organelle concerned with free radical scavenging is: a. Lysosome b. Golgi Bodies c. Nucleolus d. Peroxisomes
Which of the following processes makes use of free radicals? a. Cell adhesion b. Phagocytosis c. Contact inhibition d. Pinocytosis
The number of heme groups present in myoglobin a. 1 b. 2 с. 3 d. 4
Which is the enzyme specially involved in ossification of bone a) Hexokinase b) ATPase c) Alkaline phosphatase d) Acid phosphatase
Calcitriol acts synergistically with the following hormone on bone a) Calcitonin b) Epinephrine c) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) d) Insulin
All are Amino acid-derived hormones except: a) Thiamine b) Epinephrine c) Testosterone d) Nor-epinephrine
Both folic acid and vitamin B12 are required in a) Deamination of serine b) Deamination of threonine c) Conversion of pyridoxal phosphate to pyridoxamine phosphate d) Methylation of homocysteine to methionine
High levels of lead can affect heme metabolism by combining with 5H groups of which out of the following enzymes a. ALA synthase b. ALA dehydratase c. PBG deaminase d. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
Refsum's disease is due to accumulation of: a) Sphingomyelin b) Glucocerebraside c) Phytanic Acid d) Ganglioside
Hypercholesterolemia.js seen in the following conditions except: a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hyperthyroidism c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Obstructive jaundice
Vandenbergh reaction in hemolytic jaundice is a. Indirect positive b. Direct positive c. Biphasic d. None of these
Which disease is associated with conjugated hyper bilirubinemia a) Dubin Johnson syndrome b) Congenital spherocytosis c) Gilbert disease d) Crigler Najjar syndrome
Vanden Bergh reaction is indirect positive in which jaundice? a) Hepatocellular b) Hemolytic c) Obstructive d) All of the above
Niacin can be synthesized in human beings from a) Histidine b) Tryptophan c) Phenylalanine d) Tyrosine
The vitamin required for the formation of hydroxyproline during collagen synthesis is a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin A c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E
The highest level of protein structure seen in myoglobin is a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary
The tissue that cannot use fatty acids as fuel is: a) Liver b) Brain c) Skeletal Muscle d) Cardiac muscle
The chain elongation of fatty acid takes place in: a. Mitochondria b. Microsomes c. Golgi complex. d. Peroxisome
The substance that facilitates the release of O, from oxyhemoglobin a. 2,3, BPG b. H+ c. Cl d. All of them
Which of the following diseases are not attributed to free radical injury a) Cataract b) Reperfusion injury c) Retrolental fibroplasia d) Hypothyroidism
Which one of the following vitamins acts as a cell scavenger? a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin K
In mammalian cells, ribosomal RNA is produced mainly in the a) Nucleolus b) Nucleus c) Ribosome F d) Golgi apparatus
The most potent Vitamin D metabolite is a) 25-hydroxycholecalciferol b) 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol c) 24, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol d) 7-Dehydracholesterol
Specific Dynamic Action (SDA) is highest for a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Lipids d. Mixed diet
Which of the following is Phase 3 reaction-of Detoxification: a) Epoxidation b) Glucuronidation c) Deconjugation d) Dealkylation
The following are the features of starvation except: a. Ketoacidosis b. Glycogenolysis c. Increase in BMR d. Gluconeogenesis
In anormal adult man, the amount of triacylglycerol stored is a. 40 kg b. 35 kg c.25 kg d.15 kg
Ketone bodies in urine are identified by a) Heat and acetic acid b) Benedicts test c) Rothera’s test d) Benzidine test
Dietary requirement of thiamine increases with a higher intake of a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Cholesterol d) Lipids
A characteristic pheochromocytoma is elevated urinary excretion of a) Dopamine b) Tyrosine c) Phenylalanine d) Vanillylmandelic acid
An example of feedback inhibition is a) Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate b) Cyanide action on cytochrome c) Sulpha drug on folic acid synthesizer bacteria d) Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid
Which of the following supplies the 2 carbon units that are added to the elongation of fatty acid chain a. Acetyl coA b. Malonyl co A c. B- keto acyl coA d. Glucose
The pathway which takes place in mitochondria is: a) Glycolysis b) HMP pathway c) Ketogenesis d) Cholesterol synthesis
Specific gravity of urine is increased in: a. Chronic glomerulonephritis b. Diabetes mellitus c. Liver disease d. Intake of vegetables
Foodstuff with the highest specific dynamic action is a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamins
Heme contains a) Sodium b) Magnesium c) Calcium d) Iron
Keshan disease occurs due to the deficiency of a) Selenium b) Chromium c) Cobalt d) Manganese
Zinc is a constituent of the enzyme a) Succinate dehydrogenase b) Mitochondrial superoxide dismutase c) Carbonic anhydrase d) Aldolase
‘Clearing factor’ is a) Lipoprotein lipase b) Crotonase c) 7-dehydro cholesterol d) B-sitosterol
A 75 year old female is seen in the emergency room with fractured arm. Physical examination reveals multiple bruises, perifollicular hemorrhages and bleeding gums. Laboratory result indicates micracytic hypochromic anemia. Which of the following enzymes should be less active than the normal in this patient A. Glutathione peroxidase B. Prolyl hydroxylase C. Gamma Glutamyl transferase D. ALA synthase
Steroid hormone is produced from: a) Purine b) Pyrimidine c) Cholesterol d) Stercobilinogen
Beta oxidation of fatty acid forms-all the following except: a. NADH b. Acetyl CoA c. Malonyl CoA d. FADH2
The final common pathway for oxidation of major foodstuff is a. Glycolysis b. Kreb's cycle c. HMP shunt d. B-oxidation
The pathway which taken place in the Mitochondria is a) Ketogenesis b) Glycolysis c) Cholesterol synthesis d) HMP shunt pathway
Niacin can be synthesized from the following-amino acid a) Histidine b) Tryptophan c) Tyrosine d) Threonine
Which of the following statements about Menke's disease are true a) It is an inherited disorder of copper metabolism b) Plasma copper is increased in it c) It occurs only in males d) Hair becomes steely and kinky in it
Acetyl CoA carboxylase is activated by a) Citrate b) Insulin c) Both A&B d) None of these
A weight loss advertisement claims that drug causes your body to burn calories without the need of exercise. Which of the following compounds could make this claim a. Barbiturates b. Antimycin c. Dinitrophenol d. BAL
Renal plasma flow is measured by: a) Creatinine Clearance b) Specific gravity of urine c) Para amino Hippurate clearance d) Urine output
Congenital erythropoietic porphyria is caused due to deficiency of: a. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase b. Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase c. PBG deaminase d. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
One of the following is the most important essential fatty acid in the diet a. Linoleic acid b. Arachidonic acid c. Oleic acid d. Palmitic acid
Fatty liver may be prevented by the following except a) Lecithin b) Ethanol c) Choline d) Erythrocytes
Which one of the following trace element deficiencies causes loss of taste sensation? a) Copper b) Iron c) Zine d) Selenium
Meningitis and encephalitis cause a) Respiratory alkalosis b) Metabolic alkalosis c) Metabolic acidosis d) Respiratory acidosis
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is induced by a) 6-Phosphogluconolactone b) Glucose-6-phosphate c) Ribose-5-phosphate d) Insulin
Which of the following Apo proteins is an activator of lipoprotein lipase a. Apo A b. Apo B c. Apo Cll d. Apo D
Which of the following amino acid can give rise to a vitamin a. Thyptophan b. Proline c. Histidine d. Phenylalanine
Which amino acid does not undergo transamination a. Lysine b. Serine c. Glutamate d. Valine
The two nitrogen atoms of urea are delivered from a. Ammonia and arginine b. Ammonia and aspartate c. Ammonia and alanine d. Ammonia and creatinine
The amino acid which does not allow formation of alpha helix is a. Glutamate b. Glycine c. Aspartic acid d. Proline
Driving Denove synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotide which nucleotide is first synthesized a. IMP b. CMP c. UMP d. CMP
The drug of choice for treating primary gout is: a. Allopurinol b. Aspirin c. Tetracycline d. Colchicine
The daily requirement of iron in adult is a. 10-20 microgram b. 10-20 gram c. 0.1-0.5 mg
Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by all the following except: a. Osteaporosis b. Hypercalciuria c. Alkalosis
DNA finger printing is based on unique a. Tandam repeats b. Blood group c. Mutagens d. Coding sequence
Which is not a transcription initiation signal? a. CAAT box b. Hogness box c. Pribnow box d. Homeo box
Nucleosome is a. Alternate name for nucleolus b. Promoter sequence for transcription c. DNA-RNA complex present in nucleus d. DNA wrapped around histones
Causes of metabolic alkalosis includes all the following except: a. Continuous gastric aspiration b. Ingestion of antacids c. Prolonged vomiting d. Hyperventilation
Which of the following is not a contractile protein? a. Tubulin b. Actin c. BDesmosine d. Dynen
Alpha fetoprotein level is increased in-serum in a. Hepatoma b. Hyperthyroidism c. Nephritis d. Urinary tract infection
The following compounds can act as secondary messenger except: a. Calcium ions b. Inositol triphosphate c. ATP
ATP synthase is a marker enzyme present in a. Golgi complex b. Cytoplasm c. Mitochondria d. Lysosome
Peroxisomes are a. Site of oxidative phosphorylation b. Site of protein synthesis c. Concerned with drug detoxification d. Involved in production of free radicals
Oncogenes are activated by all, except: a. Viral infection b. Promoter insertion c. Mutation in proto oncogene d. Reverse transcriptase
Proximal Renal tubular acidosis is characterized by all except: a. Anemia b. Urinary pH 4,5 c. Normal anion gap acidosis d. Hyperchloremia
Define BMR. What is its normal value? What are the factors affecting BMR?
Explain the transport mechanisms across the cell membrane.
What is the normal blood pH? Describe the regulatory mechanisms of blood pH. Explain about renal regulation of blood pH. Add a note on the anion gap.
A 30-year-old man, a Strict vegetarian who does not consume even dairy products, came to the hospital with complaints of weakness, pallor, loss of sensation in the extremities, and mental confusion. On investigation, his Hb levels were found to be 7g/dl. His blood picture showed large abnormal and immature RBC. On urine examination, large amounts of methylmalonic acid a) What is your probable diagnosis? And interpret the case. b) What are the deficiency manifestations of Vitamin B12? And explain them. c) Write about absorption and transport of Vitamin B12? d) What are the biochemical functions of VitB12? e) Add a note on the metabolic link between VitB12 and folic acid.
Write the sources, RDA, absorption, transport, biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of calcium. Add a note.on the regulation of plasma calcium levels.
A 10-year-old girl at neurology OP presented with a recent history of generalized fits and pellagra-like skin rashes for the past 2 years. She also has a H/o psychotic behavior and difficulty in walking for the past 6 months. Chromatography of urine revealed that excretion of tryptophan and other neutral amino acids. In serum also, low levels of these amino acids were observed. In urine, by doing Obermeyer test, indicant products were identified. a) What is your probable diagnosis? Interpret the case. b) Describe the metabolic pathway of tryptophan. c) Name the biologically important substances produced from tryptophan. d) Write briefly on the biological role of serotonin and melatonin.
A 50-year-old male attended the casualty department with complaints of chest pain, fatigue, and uneasiness in daily activities. On laboratory examination, the total cholesterol was 293 mg/dl, LDL cholesterol - 160 mg/dl, and his triglycerides were 300mg/dl.
A 33-year-old child was brought to the-hospital by the parent with the complaint of the child's diapers becoming black. Answer the following: a) What is your probable diagnosis? b) Which metabolic pathway is affected? c) What is the biochemical cause behind the black diapers? d) What are the important compounds derived from tyrosine?
A 35-year-old male attended the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and headache for the past week and also he complained that for the last 15 days, he has been feeling very tired. His blood pH is 7.35 and HCOs is 22 meq/I. (This section is incomplete in the image. It cuts off mid- sentence.) What is the normal blood pH? Enlist various buffers of body fluids. Explain the role of plasma buffers and renal mechanisms in the maintenance of acid-base balance.
Polymerase chain reaction: a) What is the principle of PCR? b) Write about types of PCR and their uses. c) Describe the technique of PCR. d) Write about the applications of PCR.
Write in detail about the types, characteristics, and metabolism of lipoproteins. Add a note on lipoprotein disorders. Describe the chemistry, biochemical functions, daily requirements, sources, and deficiency manifestations of Vitamin A.
Classify hormones? Describe the mechanism of action of group 1 hormones.
Write about the glycemic index and its significance.
Describe the types of PEM (Protein Energy Malnutrition).
Write about the composition and functions of the extracellular matrix.
Explain the specificity of an enzyme with examples.
Describe the steps of PCR and its applications.
Describe the diagnostic importance of serum enzymes in various diseases.
4 three-month-old baby was brought to the hospital with the complaint of the child's diaper becoming black. a) What is your probable diagnosis? b) What is the biochemical cause for the blackening of diapers? c) Write about the metabolism of Tyrosine.
Write about the synthesis and functions of catecholamines.
Describe the electron transport chain. Add a note on inhibitors of ETC.
Define immunity. Describe the types of immunity and add a note on acquired immunity.
Explain detoxification by conjugation with four examples.
Define and describe different types of mutations.
HMP shunt and its significance.
What is a vaccine? Write about types of vaccines with their advantages and disadvantages.
Enumerate the types of polysaccharides and their functions.
Write about the formation and absorption of amino acids.
Classify hormones based on their mechanism of action.
What are isoenzymes? Write about cardiac isoenzymes.
Carcinogenic agents.
Sucrose intolerance.
Define and describe the different types of mutations with examples.
Write about the mechanisms of amino acid absorption.
A 50-year-old alcoholic man came to the hospital with complaints of excruciating pain in his great toe. What is your diagnosis? Enumerate the primary and secondary causes of the disease. What is the drug of choice for this condition?
Enumerate the types of Heteropolysaccharides and write their biochemical significance.
A 55-year-old man was brought to the hospital with severe abdominal pain. The patient was in a state of shock. On examination, his abdomen was distended and both femoral pulses were obliterated. After laparotomy, the condition was identified as a ruptured abdominal, aortic aneurysm. The laboratory investigations were as follows: Blood pH: 7.0, plasma HCO3 8 mEq/L, pCO2 25 mmHg, pO2 90 mmHg, Anion gap 24 mEq/L. Interpret the data and discuss the case.
Write about sources, RDA functions, and regulation of Calcium in our body.
What are enzymes involved in biological oxidation? Explain their functions with examples.
Functions of Plasma Proteins.
What are antioxidants? Give two examples of: Antioxidant enzymes Antioxidant vitamins Antioxidant minerals
Describe the absorption and functions of magnesium in the body.
4 40-year-old obese woman presented to the medical OPD with a complaint of right upper abdominal pain, mild fever, loss of appetite, and generalized itching. Furthermore, she gave a history of frothy clay-colored stool and high- colored urine. Her lab data is as follows: Total bilirubin - 12 mg%, Direct bilirubin - 10 mg%, Indirect bilirubin - 2 mg%, SGPT - 3 IU/L, SGOT - SO IU/L, ALP - 350 IU/L. a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) How do you differentiate jaundice based on Vanderberg's reaction?
Enumerate the tumor markers and their role in cancer diagnosis.
Describe the uronic acid pathway and its clinical significance.
Write in detail about ETC. Add a note on.its inhibition and uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation.
Write about the de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides.
What is clearance? What are the different types of clearance tests you know, and write their importance?
Enumerate the steps of Uric acid synthesis and add a note on its clinical importance.
Metabolic changes in starvation.
Carcinogens.
What are the factors affecting enzyme activity? Add a note on competitive inhibition.
Write about the vesicular transport across the cell membrane.
Describe the metabolic adaptations during starvation.
Describe transcription of MRNA in Prokaryotes and add a note on post- transcriptional modifications.
Describe the tests to assess glomerular function.
What is clearance? What are the different types of clearance tests you know and their significance?
Describe globulins with their functions.
Write about the biochemical effects of reactive oxygen species.
Describe the structure and functions of collagen.
Write about the sources and generation of reactive oxygen species.
PCR and its applications.
Describe the steps of heme synthesis. Add a note on AIP (Acute Intermittent Porphyria).
Functions of Zinc.
What are isoenzymes? Describe the clinical significance of cardiac isoenzymes.
A 25-year-old man develops shortness of breath. Genetic testing reveals α1-antitrypsin deficiency.
(i) This deficiency predisposes to A. Emphysema B. Myocardial infarction C. Kwashiorkor D. Osteoporosis
(ii) α1-antitrypsin normally inhibits A. Trypsin B. Elastase C. Pepsin D. Chymotrypsin
Laboratory investigation of a 52-year-old man reveals his random blood glucose 100 mg/dl and urine glucose 1.5%
(i) What could be the cause of the above lab report? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Fructosuria C. Pentosuria D. Renal glycosuria
(ii) Renal threshold for glucose is A. 180 mg/dl B. 170 mg/dl C. 160 mg/dl D. 150 mg/dl
A 1-year-old female infant was brought to the OPD with complaints of weakness, lethargy and decreased growth. On examination she was anemic, and urine contained elevated levels of orotic acid
(i) Administration of which of the following alleviates the symptoms? A. Adenine B. Guanine C. Thymidine D. Uridine
(ii) which laboratory test differentiates deficiency of uridine monophosphate synthase from ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency A. Blood ammonia B. Serum creatinine C. Uric acid D. Electrolytes
An adult lady came to OPD with complaints of fever and abdominal pain (right hypochondrial region) since 3 days. Patients gives history of passing high colored urine with normal color of stools. On examination, yellowish discoloration of skin and sclera are noticed.
(i) All the following enzyme levels will help in the diagnosis of above case EXCEPT A. Alanine Transaminase B. Aspartate Transaminase C. Acid Phosphatase D. Alkaline Phosphatase
(ii) Which the following enzymes is likely to be increased significantly in the above case? A. Alanine Transaminase B. Acid Phosphatase C. Alkaline Phosphatase D. Amylase
A 2-year-old child presents with developmental delay, seizures, and a “mousy odor” of urine. Laboratory shows elevated phenylalanine.
(i) The deficient enzyme is A. Tyrosinase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Homogentisate oxidase D. Tyrosine aminotransferase
(ii) Which cofactor is required for this enzyme? A. Tetrahydrobiopterin B. Folic Acid C. TPP D. PLP
A 12-year-old child presents to a Pediatrician with complaints of thick mucus secretions, repeated lung infections, fatty stools, and decreased weight for his age. The pediatrician suspects cystic fibrosis.
(i) Choose an appropriate laboratory test that is impaired in Cystic Fibrosis A. Increased chloride in sweat B. Decreased chloride in sweat C. Increased chloride in blood D. Decreased chloride in blood
(ii) Cystic fibrosis occurs as a result of a mutation in the following ABC family of transporter gene A. MRP 2 B. ABC B 4 C. ATP 7B D. CFTR
A 10-year-old girl is brought by her parents to the family doctor. She has many freckles on her face, neck arms and hands. Parents reported she is unusually sensitive to sunlight. Two basal cell carcinomas are also identified on her face.
(i) What is the probable diagnosis? A. Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer B. Xeroderma pigmentosum C. Ataxia tielangiectasia D. Riboflavin deficiency
(ii) Which of the following is likely to be defective in this patient? A. Repair of double strand breaks by error prone homologous recombination B. Removal of mismatched bases from 3’end by methyl directed process. C. Removal of pyrimidine dimers from DNA by nucleotide excision repair D. Removal of Uracil from DNA by base excision repair
A 25-year-old went for trekking and he developed headache, dizziness, breathing difficulty sometime after reaching the peak. ABG data is as follows. Blood pH – 7.54, pCO2 – 20 mm Hg, plasma bicarbonate– 26 mEq/L
(i) What is the Acid -base disorder in the above case? A. Metabolic Acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory Acidosis D. Respiratory Alkalosis
(ii) What is the compensatory Mechanism? A. Hyperventilation B. Hypoventilation C. Reabsorption of bicarbonate ion D. Excretion of bicarbonate ion
A 2-year-old child presents with recurrent severe infections. Laboratory investigations shows lymphopenia and ↑ dATP levels.
(i) The deficient enzyme is: A. Ribonucleotide reductase B. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) C. HGPRT D. Xanthine oxidase
(ii) This condition is usually associated with A. Increased uric acid levels B. Decreased uric acid levels C. Increased Urea levels D. Increased Ammonia Levels
Diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure was made in a 65-year-old man. He was prescribed digoxin.
(i) Identify the nature of this drug A. Amino sugar B. Glycoside C. Glycoprotein D. Glycolipid
(ii) Digoxin is formed by condensation of alcohol with the OH group of this carbohydrate A. Glucose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. Mannose
A 2-week-old infant is diagnosed with an urea cycle defect. Enzymatic analysis showed no activity for Ornithine transcarbamoylase. Molecular analysis revealed that the mRNA product of the gene for OTC was identical to that of a control
(i) Which of the techniques was most likely used to analyse mRNA? A. Northern Blot B. Western Blot C. Southern Blot D. Eastern blot
(ii) Which phase of Central dogma was affected in this patient? A. Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. None of the above
A 16-year-old lady came with history of imbalance while walking, weakness in both lower limbs since 5 months. She has difficulty in combing hair and buttoning clothes. On examination, she had ataxic gait.
(i) What is the deficient vitamin in the above case? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B6 D. Vitamin C
(ii) The biochemical function of the deficient vitamin in the above case is: A. Acetylation B. Gamma carboxylation C. Oxidative decarboxylation D. Transamination
A 3-year-old child presents with immunodeficiency and increased sensitivity to UV radiation associated with defective DNA repair.
(i) The most likely condition is A. Ataxia Talangiectasia B. Fanconi Anemia C. Xeroderma Pigmentosum D. Bloom’s Syndrome
(ii) Which clinical feature is commonly associated with this defective DNA repair? A. Hyperuricemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Liver cirrhosis D. Increased cancer susceptibility
A 10-year-old child presents to a Pediatrician with yellowish discoloration of teeth. The pediatrician suspects fluorosis.
(i) Dental fluorosis results when the concentration of fluoride in water is more than A. 5 PPM B. 10 PPM C. 15 PPM D. 20 PPM
(ii) The Pediatrician asks the parents to check the fluoride level in the water. What is the safe limit of fluoride in water to prevent fluorosis? A. Less than 1 PPM B. Less than 5 PPM C. Less than 2 PPM D. Less than 3 PPM
A 40-year old female presented to the clinic with lump in right breast. A mammogram performed revealed a breast mass with numerous macrocalcifications suggestive of breast cancer.
(i) What cancer gene might be associated? A. BRCA gene B. P53 C. FAP D. RB
(ii) What is the tumour marker associated with breast cancer? A. PSA B. CA-125 C. AFP D. HER-2 neu
A 5-year-old boy residing at kolar came to dentist with complaints of yellowish discoloration of teeth. On examination dentist observed mottling and stratification of teeth.
(i) Abnormality of which of the following nutrient causes the above condition? A. Calcium B. Copper C. Iodine D. Fluorine
(ii) The biochemical function of the abnormal nutrient is: A. Protects Gums B. Formation of teeth C. Protects enamel D. Mineralization of teeth
A researcher measures mRNA levels using RT-PCR.
(i) What does RT stand for A. Rapid transcriptase B. Reverse transcriptase C. RNA tracking D. Ribosome targeting
(ii) Purpose of RT-PCR is to A. Detect DNA by converting it to RNA and amplifying B. Detect RNA by converting it to cDNA and amplifying C. Detect Viral proteins D. Detect lipids
A 52-year-old known diabetic gets his electrolytes checked in a lab.
(i) Identify the electrolyte imbalance due to hyperglycemia A. Dilutional hypernatremia B. Dilutional hyponatremia C. Dilutional hypokalemia D. Dilutional hyperkalemia
(ii) What is the probable disturbance in fluid volume in this patient? A. Hypertonic expansion B. Hypotonic expansion C. Hypertonic contraction D. Hypotonic contraction
A 50-year-old man presented with painful blisters on the backs of his hands. He was a golf instructor and indicated that the blisters had erupted shortly after the golfing season began.The patient’s urine was reddish orange. A 24-hour urine collection showed elevated uroporphyrin
(i) The most likely diagnosis is: A. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria B. Acute intermittent porphyria. C. Hereditary coproporphyria. D. Porphyria cutanea tarda
(ii) The enzyme deficient in this porphyria is A. UPG III co Synthase B. UPG decarboxylase C. CPG III Oxidase D. PBG deaminase
7-month-old child was brought to the OPD with failure to thrive and bilateral opacities in the eye. On examination the child was found to have bilateral cataract, hepatomegaly and mental retardation
(i) What is the probable diagnosis for the above case? A. Galactosemia B. Pompe’s disease C. Niemann-pick disease D. Von-Gierke’s disease
(ii) Which is the enzyme deficient in the above condition? A. Galactose-1-phosphate pyrophosphorylase B. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase C. Glucose-6-phosphatase D. Liver phosphorylase
A 45-year-old man presents with liver enlargement. Blood tests show elevated AFP levels
(i) AFP is a tumor marker for which of the following tumor? A. Breast cancer B. Colon cancer C. Lung cancer D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
(ii) AFP is also elevated in A. Prostate cancer B. Neural tube defect C. Congenital heart disease D. Renal failure
A man doing a moderate amount of work and weighing 55kg approaches you to know his daily energy requirement.
(i) Choose the correct calorie requirement A. 2050kcal/day B. 3050kcal/day C. 1050kcal/day D. 550kcal/day
(ii) What is the percentage of extra calories that has to be considered towards SDA if the person is consuming mixed diet A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20%
An adolescent girl presents with subluxation of lens and mental retardation. On examination she is tall and thin with elongated limbs. Mild scoliosis was present with pectus excavatum and genu valgum. One of her sisters had similar complaints.
(ii) What is the enzyme deficient in this disorder? A. Cystathionine Beta Synthase B. Cystathionase C. Methionine Adenosyl transferase D. None of the above
A 40-year-old person came with complaints of weight loss inspite of repeated eating, increased frequency of urination and recurrent infections. Provisional diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus is made.
(i) What is the diagnostic criteria for Diabetes mellitus? A. FBS >100 mg/dL B. PPBS >200 mg/dL C. HbA1c >5.4 % D. All of the above
(ii) Which of these investigations is not used for monitoring of Diabetes mellitus patient? A. FBS B. PPBS C. HbA1c D. OGTT
A 25-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, vomiting and neuropathy. Urine appears dark red on standing.
(i) Which enzyme deficiency is responsible for Acute Intermittent Porphyria? A. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase B. Ferrochelatase C. Porphobilinogen deaminase D. ALA synthase
(ii) Which substance/s is/are elevated in Acute Intermittent Porphyria? A. Heme B. Bilirubin C. Porphobilinogen and ALA D. Uroporphyrin
A chronic alcoholic is brought to the hospital with impaired speech.
(i) What could be the amount of alcohol consumed by this person? A. <50 ml B. 50-150 ml C. 150-300ml D. 300-400ml
(ii) Alcohol is metabolized by all of the following enzymes EXCEPT A. Alcohol reductase B. Alcohol dehydrogenase C. Aldehyde dehydrogenase D. Microsomal ethanol oxidizing system
A 32-year old woman presented to surgery OPD with complaints of pain abdomen with irregular menstrual cycles. She also had history of sudden weight loss. Ultrasound abdomen shows mass in the ovaries. She was diagnosed to have carcinoma of ovaries.
(i) Cancer is mainly caused by A. Uncontrolled meiosis B. Uncontrolled mitosis. C. Cell rupture D. Loss of immunity
(ii) Cancer causing oncogenes are not expressed because of the presence of A. Protooncogenes B. Tumor promoters C. Tumour suppressor genes D. Jumping genes
A 14-year-old boy came with complaints of generalized weakness, epileptic seizures and abdominal pain. On examination was found to have hepatomegaly and Kayser Fleischer ring around cornea.
(i) What is the biochemical defect? A. Decreased copper in diet B. Decreased absorption of copper C. Decreased copper binding protein D. Increased excretion of copper
(ii) The penicillamine used in the treatment acts by A. Increasing absorption of copper B. Increasing binding of copper C. Increasing transport of copper D. Increasing excretion of copper
A patient presents with pallor and jaundice. Laboratory investigations show elevated indirect bilirubin and LDH, with low haptoglobin.
(i) What type of bilirubin predominates in hemolysis? A. Conjugated B. Unconjugated (indirect) C. Direct D. Delta bilirubin
(ii) What is the observation in Vandenbergh reaction? A. Indirect Positive B. Direct positive C. Biphasic D. Negative
A 22-year-old female is diagnosed with Pulmonary Tuberculosis and is prescribed anti- tubercular treatment, and INH is one of its components.
(i) Identify the drug-induced vitamin deficiency A. Folic acid deficiency B. Vitamin B 12 deficiency C. Pyridoxine deficiency D. Niacin deficiency
(ii) Which is the active form of this vitamin? A. TPP B. FAD C. NAD D. PLP
A first year MBBS student after her biochemistry free radicals lecture class decided to include Aqueous phase antioxidant in her daily diet.
(i) The antioxidant is A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin C
(ii) Chain breaking Anti-oxidant is A. Vitamin E B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin C
A 7-month-old child fell while crawling and presented with swollen leg. X-ray of affected leg showed fracture of femur. The bones were found to be thin. Past history revealed that by then child has had multiple fractures.
(i) What is the disorder of extracellular matrix in the above case? A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome B. Marfans syndrome C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Menkes disease
(ii) The condition is caused is due to defect in ______________ A. Collagen type I B. Collagen type III C. Elastin type II D. Fibrillin Type I
55-year-old Diabetic patient has persistent microalbuminuria. eGFR is 82mL/min/1.73 m2
(i) Which is the most appropriate interpretation? A. Early Diabetic Nephropathy B. Advanced CKD C. Renal Tubular acidosis D. Acute Glomerulonephritis
(ii) Microalbuminuria refers to amount of excretion of albumin in urine A. 300-800 mg/day B. 30-300 mg/day C. 100-300 mg/day D. 500-1000 mg/day
A 10-year-old boy is diagnosed with Osteogenesis imperfecta.
(i) Identify the biochemical defect in this condition where glycine in collagen is replaced by A. Glycine B. Cysteine C. Lysine D. Proline
(ii) Collagen has this characteristic structure. Choose the appropriate one: A. Triple helical B. Quarter staggered C. Triple helical & quarter staggered D. Helical & quarter staggered
A 55-year old female presented to dermatology OPD with complaints of swelling of lips, rashes all over the body and facial puffiness. She gives history of having food from outside the previous night. She was diagnosed to have Urticaria. She was advised for serum investigations. 26 26
(i) Which of the following Immunoglobulins will be elevated A. IgA QP CODE : 5506 B. IgM C. IgE D. IgG
(ii) One of following is true about the elevated Immunoglobulin in the above condition A. Contributes to 75-80% of total Ig B. Macroglobulins C. Secretory antibodies. D. Have the property to fix on mast cells
A young boy met with a road traffic accident and lost the lot of blood due to injury. Renin angiotensin system plays a major role in the maintenance of fluid balance.
(i) All the following Factors stimulate the renin release EXCEPT: A. Angiotensin II B. Decreased blood pressure C. Salt depletion D. Prostaglandins
(ii) Which of the following is the action of Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)? A. Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I B. Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II C. Converts angiotensin II to angiotensin III D. Converts angiotensin III to angiotensin II
A patient potassium level is 6.8 mg/dL; however values are not correlating clinically.
(i) What is the most likely cause? A. Sodium Citrate contamination B. Delayed sample transport C. Due to invitro RBC rupture D. High chloride interference
(ii) All of the following parameters are affected by hemolysis EXCEPT A. LDH B. Potassium C. Magnesium D. Sodium
Autopsy of a 2-year-old child reveals accumulation of glycogen in lysosomes of hepatocytes, heart and muscle
(i) Identify the inborn error of metabolism A. Von Gierke’s disease B. Pompe’s disease C. Her’s disease D. McArdle’s disease
(ii) Deficiency of which enzyme results in the disorder mentioned above A. Glucose 6 phosphatase B. Branching enzyme C. Debranching enzyme D. Lysosomal maltase
A person came with a complaint of wrong results of his blood sugar level. The technologist approached consultant biochemist for the same.
(i) What did the biochemist check EXCEPT? A. Daily Internal QC B. Values of blood sugar in the analyser C. LJ chart D. External Quality control
(ii) The sample for blood sugar analysis should be collected in A. EDTA vacutainer B. Heparin vacutainer C. Sodium fluoride vacutainer D. Citrate vacutainer
A 8 month old girl was brought to the clinic in an irritable state. Weight was much lower than expected, mid arm circumference was low for age. The mother had stopped breast feeding at the age of 5 months and was now giving diluted formula milk. There was no evidence of swelling or abdominal distension.
(i) Which of the following is true for the above nutritional disorder? A. Essential fatty acid deficiency B. Primary protein deficiency C. Primary calorie deficiency D. Both calorie and protein deficiency
(ii) Which of the following is the biochemical laboratory finding will be observed in above nutritional disorder? A. Normal serum albumin and increased serum cortisol levels B. Increased serum albumin and serum cortisol levels C. Decreased both serum albumin and serum cortisol levels D. Increased serum albumin and normal serum cortisol levels
Lesch – nyhan syndrome.
Antioxidants
Beri - Beri.
Von Gierke’s disease
Detoxification by conjugation
Multiple response type questions. Read the statements and mark the answers appropriately.
Glycine is involved in the following metabolic pathways 1) Glycine, glutamate and cysteine together form glutathione 2) It is used in the salvage pathway of synthesis of pyrimidines 3) Combines with succinyl CoA resulting in formation of heme 4) Used for conjugation of bile acids to produce bile salts a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 4
The following statements regarding urea cycle are true 1) Urea cycle occurs both in mitochondria and cytosol 2) The non-protein amino acid involved in urea cycle is arginosuccinate 3) The compound linking urea cycle to citric acid cycle is ornithine 4) N- Acetyl glutamate is allosteric activator of Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I a) 1 & 2 b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 4 d) 3 & 4
Regarding the products formed from tryptophan, the following is true 1) Melanin, epinephrine & nor-epinephrine are formed from tryptophan 2) Serotonin is 5- Hydroxy tryptamine and is an antidepressant 3) Melatonin is produced by the argentaffin cells of the GIT 4) 60 mg of tryptophan is used to synthesize 1 mg of nicotinic acid a) 1 & 3 b) 3 & 4 c) 2 & 4 d)1 & 2
Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for the following reactions 1) Transamination 2) Decarboxylation 3) Hydroxylation 4) Redox reactions a) 1 & 2 b) 1 & 3 c) 1 & 4 d) 3 & 4
Which of the following statements about vitamin E are correct 1) Vitamin E is a chain breaking antioxidant 2) Selenium has sparing effect on the dietary requirement of Vitamin E 3) It favours lipid peroxidation in biological membranes 4) It causes hemolysis of RBCs a) 1 & 2 b) 1 & 3 c) 2 & 4 d) 3 & 4
Gene Therapy.
Cori’s Cycle
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
Post translational modifications
Inhibitors of electron transport chain.
Micelles.
Name two tumour markers with associated clinical condition.
Enzyme defect in orotic aciduria
FIGLU excretion test
Name the essential fatty acids.
Maple syrup urine disease is an inborn error in metabolism of a) Sulphur-containing amino acids b) Aromatic amino acids c) Branched chain amino acids d) Dicarboxylic amino acids
Metabolic acidosis
Discuss the biochemical alterations seen in blood and urine in different types of jaundice.
Define oxidative phosphorylation. Explain the chemiosmotic theory.
There are two statements marked as-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the options provided
Assertion(A): Analysis of plasma glucose in a plain tube can be done at any time after collecting sample – there won’t be any change in plasma glucose level. Reason(R): Glycolysis will reduce the patient blood glucose level a) Both A and R are correct c) Both A and R are incorrect b) A incorrect R correct d) A correct R incorrect
Assertion(A): Cytochrome P450 is the chief enzyme responsible for clearance of majority of drugs Reason(R): Cytochrome P450 catalyses through conjugation a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the reason for A c) Both A and R are incorrect b) A correct R incorrect d) Both A and R are correct R is the reason for A
Assertion(A): Restriction fragment length polymorphism can be used to settle cases of disputed parenthood Reason (R): Both chromosomes of a pair show similar restriction pattern a) Both A and R are correct c) Both A and R are incorrect b) A incorrect R correct d) A correct R incorrect
Assertion(A): In hepatic jaundice, Hay’s test will be positive Reason (R): Hay’s test is used to detect conjugated bilirubin a) Both A and R are correct R is the reason for A c) Both A and R are incorrect b) A correct R incorrect d) Both A and R are correct R is not the reason for A
Assertion (A): Creatinine clearance is a better index than urea clearance Reason (R): Creatinine clearance is not affected by dietary protein Consumption a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the reason for A c) Both A and R are incorrect b) A incorrect R correct d) Both A and R are correct, R is the reason for A
Recombinant DNA technology and its applications.
Functions of phospholipids
Define metabolic acidosis. What are the characteristic features and causes of metabolic acidosis. Mention the compensatory mechanisms.
Absorption, Storage and transport of iron.
Post transcriptional modifications.
Reverse cholesterol transport
Hemopexin carries a) Free hemoglobin b) Free heme c) Free bilirubin d) Free iron
Name the inhibitors of electron transport chain and state at what level they act.
Fluid mosaic model
Mitochondria
Hyperkalemia
Hartnup’s disease.
Salvage pathway
Galactosemia.
Dietary fiber
Kwashiorkor
Essential pentosuria
Applications of recombinant DNA technology.
Homocystinuria
Folate trap
Applications of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
Differentiate between active and passive immunity.
Biologically Important peptides
Endoplasmic reticulum.
Anion gap
Collagen
Isoenzymes as Cardiac Markers
Cardiac markers
Why sucrose is a non reducing sugar
Biochemical functions of selenium
Alkaptonuria.
Enzyme defect in Tay Sach’s disease.
Enzyme defect in alkaptonuria
Name any two vectors used in gene therapy.
Renal glycosuria
Coenzyme form of biotin
Southern blotting
Name two post translational modifications.
Give an example for substrate level phosphorylation
Name two antioxidants
Name any two zinc containing enzymes
Enzyme deficient in Galactosemia
Name two conditions caused by defective DNA repair.
Name the neuro transmitters formed from tryptophan
Name two compounds formed from Glycine.
Name the aromatic amino acids
Name ketone bodies
Bence – Jones proteins
Normal value of total serum protein
Describe the metabolism of Tryptophan. Enumerate the specialized compounds formed from tryptophan and write their biomedical importance (OR) Mention the symptoms of Phenylketonuria. Discuss the tests used for diagnosis of Phenylketonuria. Enumerate the specialized compounds formed from tyrosine and write their biomedical importance
A 68-year-old man, known diabetic for the past 20 years was brought to the emergency in a disoriented state. Relatives informed that he had fever for the last few days and skipped his regular doses of insulin. On examination he had rapid pulse and rapid deep breathing. Laboratory results as follows: pH: 7.2, HCO3-: 12 meq/L, PCO2:35mm of Hg, Na+:135meq/L, K+:4.9meq/L,Cl-: 101meq/L a) What is the most likely acid base disorder in this patient b) Calculate anion gap and comments c) Interpret the given laboratory parametres and give their reference interval d) Enumerate the causes for this type of acid base imbalance e) Describe the role of lungs and kidney in maintaining normal plasma pH
What are the components of a lipid profile? Mention their normal reference range. Describe the metabolism of Lipoproteins in detail
Explain the active form, activation, biochemical functions, RDA and deficiency manifestations of vitamin D.
Explain the pathways by which glycogen is synthesized and broken down in the body. Describe how these pathways are regulated
A 45-year-old male patient reported to orthopedics outpatient department on Monday morning with pain and swelling of first metatarsophalangeal joint of right foot. He had consumed alcoholic drinks heavily on Saturday night. On examination the first metatarsophalangeal joint of right foot was warm, swollen and tender. • What is your diagnosis • What are the causes of this disorder • What are the investigations to confirm this disorder • What are the biochemical basis of management of this condition.
35-year-old female, housewife, presented to the medicine department with excessive weakness, breathlessness and palpitations since 3 months. History revealed that she had complaints of excessive menstrual bleeding. She had followed strict vegetarian diet. Investigations revealed her hemoglobin was 7 gm/dl. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Describe the sources, RDA, functions, absorption, transport and deficiency of the mineral involved c) Describe the biochemical investigations and blood picture relevant to this case
Describe in detail about citric acid cycle. Write briefly on energetics and regulation
What are ketone bodies. How are they formed in the body. Describe the role of ketone bodies in starvation and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
What is β oxidation. Describe the process of β oxidation of even chain fatty acids with energetics.
Describe the sources, RDA, functions and deficiency manifestations of ascorbic acid.
23-year-old female was brought to casualty with the complaints of dizziness, weakness and fainting attack. History revealed that she had skipped her breakfast and lunch with intention of losing weight. Random blood glucose was 40 mg/dl. All other investigations were normal. • What is the probable diagnosis • What is the normal blood glucose level • Describe the regulation of blood glucose. • Add a note on glucose tolerance test.
In pheochromocytoma, there is excess synthesis of a. Vanillyl mandelic acid b. Polyamines c. Hippuric acid d. Indole acetic acid
A 54-year-old man was admitted to emergency in a disoriented state. He had a feeble pulse, low blood pressure and sweetish odour of breath. Arterial blood gas analysis showed pH : 7.1, HCO3 :11 mmol/L, pCO2 : 38 mmHg. a) What is the most likely acid base disorder in this case b) Interpret the ABG findings and give the normal reference interval c) Give four causes for the above acid base disorder d) Enumerate the major buffer systems in the body e) Discuss the renal regulatory mechanisms of acid base balance
A 2-year-old child presented with liver enlargement and complaints of weakness, sweating and pallor which disappeared on eating food. Mother revealed that milestones were delayed. On investigation, blood glucose: 50 mg/dl, uric acid: 10 mg/dL, lactic acid: 15 mg/dL, cholesterol: 300 mg/dL, and presence of ketone bodies. a) What is the likely diagnosis b) Name the enzyme defect c) Discuss the pathways that lead to elevated levels of uric acid, lactic acid, and cholesterol d) Discuss the reason for liver enlargement e) Give the normal reference range for serum cholesterol and Fasting Blood glucose
A 45-year-old bank manager visits the OPD with increased frequency of urination (Polyuria), Increased thirst (Polydypsia) and increased hunger (Polyphagia). He also gives the history of weight loss. On general examination, there were no significant findings. The laboratory investigations were as follows: Answer the following questions using the above data: • What is the diagnosis. • Mention various methods for estimation of glucose • What are WHO criteria for diagnosis of this disorder • Why urine sugar was positive in this patient • Describe the various factors that regulate blood glucose level
Describe the process of eukaryotic translation. Add a note on post-translational modifications and inhibitors of translation.
A 42-year old obese lady presented with pain abdomen. She also complaints of passing clay coloured stool on examination there was yellowish discoloration of skin. • What is the diagnosis. • Describe the laboratory findings in hemolytic, hepatocellular and obstructive jaundice. • Van den Bergh reaction.
The amino acid found in protein structure a. Arginine b. Proline c. Histidine d. Lysine
What are biologically important compounds derived from tyrosine. Explain the catabolism of tyrosine and name three inborn errors associated with tyrosine metabolism.
Define enzyme inhibition. Explain the different types of enzyme inhibitions. Mention the significance of enzyme inhibitors.
Describe the metabolic fate and functions of Methionine and Cysteine. Add a note on the diseases associated
Describe the reactions of the Citric Acid Cycle. Explain the Amphibolic nature of this cycle. Add a note on its energetics.
A 2-year-old child presented with complaints of on and off vomiting and lethargy for past two months. On examination child had a massive liver enlargement. Blood investigation reports were as follows: Blood sugar: 50mg%, Uric acid:10mg%, lactic acid:15mg%, Total cholesterol:300mg%. Liver biopsy demonstrated the mosaic pattern of enlarged hepatocytes, exhibiting abundant clear cytoplasm containing glycogen and lipid vacuoles. a) What is the diagnosis b) Name other glycogen storage disorders c) Explain how glycogen is metabolized in the body d) Explain the hormonal regulation of glycogen metabolism
Explain the steps of Transcription in Eukaryotes with a note on inhibitors of transcription.
During urea cycle two nitrogen atoms are derived from a) Ammonia and arginine b) Ammonia and aspartic acid c) Both from Ammonia d) Ammonia and Ornithine
A man of 45 years of age is overweight with a sedentary lifestyle underwent an annual health checkup. Following are the details of the investigations. Answer the following questions using the above data: a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Mention the causes for the above condition c) Briefly describe chylomicron metabolism d) Briefly describe hyperlipidemia
A 70-year-old male presented to his family physician with yellow discoloration of sclera associated with epigastric pain and weight loss. Urine had become darker in color and his stools pale. A CT scan of the abdomen revealed a tumor in the pancreas. Investigations: Total Bilibrubin–4.2mg/dl; Direct Bilirubin–3.8mg/dl; ALP–510U/L; AST–80U/L; ALT-76U/L. Answer the following using the above data: • What is the probable diagnosis • Define and classify Jaundice • Which enzyme is specific for this type of jaundice and why • Explain the urinary findings • Why urine is dark in color and stools pale • Enumerate the causes of jaundice • List the laboratory investigations used to differentiate between the types of jaundice.
Explain bilirubin formation and excretion in detail. Describe the biochemical changes in hepato-cellular and obstructive jaundice.
Mother noticed that her child didn’t attain milestones for the age. Mother also noticed hypopigmentation and mousy odour a) Name the amino acid involved b) What is the diagnosis c) What is the metabolism of the amino acid. Mention the inborn errors associated with its metabolism. d) Enumerate the laboratory investigations aiding in the diagnosis. e) Name two specialized compounds formed from tyrosine and discuss their formation in brief
Explain in detail Phenylalanine metabolism with a note on inborn errors associated with and relevant biochemical investigations for them
A 40-year-old man is brought to the hospital in a comatose state. On examination, he was found to be dehydrated and toxic with a characteristic breathing pattern with sweet smell. He was admitted and investigated. Following are his lab investigations: RBS :380 mg/dl S. HCO3: 15 mEq/L S. Ketones: 80mg/dl pH: 7.25 www.FirstRanker Urinary Benedicts test: ++++ Urinary Rothera's test: Positive Answer the following: a) What is your diagnosis? b) What are the favourable points for your diagnosis? c) Explain the metabolism of Ketone Bodies? d) Write about the hormonal regulation of blood glucose. e) What are the differences between types of Diabetes Mellitus?
Describe the synthesis, biochemical functions, daily requirements, sources, and deficiency manifestation of vitamin D.
Explain the formation and disposal of Ammonia. Add a note on the urea cycle disorders
Explain the process of translation in eukaryotes. Add a note on inhibitors and post translational modifications
Describe protein biosynthesis in eukaryotes. Name two inhibitors of microbial protein synthesis.
42-year-old obese lady presented with intolerance to fatty foods and pain in right abdominal region. On examination, her eyes were yellowish; stools had clay-colored appearance. Her investigations revealed the following. Serum bilirubin -18 mg/dl Direct bilirubin-17 mg/dl AST-35 IU/L ALT-40 IU/L ALP-400 IU/L a) What is the probable diagnosis b) What is the normal serum Bilirubin level c) Describe the catabolism of Heme. d) What is the biochemical basis of clay colored stools e) What will be the probable urinary findings in this patient
A 50 years old man with 3 years history of hypertension and occasional panic attacks reported to hospital with episode of throbbing headache, associated with excessive sweating. He gave history of similar attacks earlier. On examination, his BP was 180/100 mm Hg and pulse was 82/min. urine examination revealed very high levels of 24 hrs VMA. • What is the probable diagnosis • Name the aromatic amino acids • Describe the biochemical basis of symptoms and urinary finding • Describe the synthesis of any two biochemically important compounds from the parent amino acid
Define gluconeogenesis. Name the substrates for gluconeogenesis. Trace the pathway of gluconeogenesis from pyruvate to glucose. Add a note on its regulation.
What are the types of fatty acid oxidation. Explain in detail the oxidation of palmitic acid and its regulation
Write in detail about oxidation of Glucose in the anerobic 6+2+2=10 conditions. Add a note on regulation and energetics.
Describe the chemistry, biochemical functions, requirements and deficiency symptoms of vitamin C
Name the aromatic amino acids. Discuss the metabolism of tyrosine and its related disorders.
Explain in detail the active forms, biochemical functions, RDA and deficiency manifestations of Vitamin A with a note on Wald’s Visual Cycle
What is the normal pH of blood. Describe in detail about the respiratory and renal regulation of blood pH and add a note on metabolic acidosis.
Describe the mitochondrial electron transport chain. What is substrate level phosphorylation. Give two examples.
Describe the formation and excretion of bilirubin. Explain the significance of serum bilirubin and urobilinogen in the diagnosis of various types of jaundice
A 45-year-old man complaints of increased appetite, thirst, and frequent micturition. His random blood sugar is 346 mg/dl • What is the diagnosis. What are the diagnostic criteria • Discuss the relevant investigations that can be done for further monitoring of the patient • How is blood glucose regulated • What is the renal threshold for Glucose
Write in detail about acid base balance
Describe the steps of Beta-Oxidation of Palmitic acid with energetics. Add a note on its regulation
Why uric acid tends to precipitate during the night time in peripheral joints and in alcohol consumption.
Give a detailed account of the transcription process. How is it regulated. Name inhibitors of transcription
a) Acidosis is associated with hyperkalemia. Give reason b) Alkalosis is associated with hypokalemia. Give reason
Describe purine catabolism.
Describe the reactions of urea cycle. Discuss the diagnostic significance of blood urea.
Write the definition, steps and inhibitors of transcription.
Definition, steps and inhibitors of translation
Write in detail about vitamin B12 - its sources, coenzymes, RDA, functions, metabolism and deficiency manifestations
Describe HMP Shunt pathway. Add a note on the significance of this pathway
Glycogenolysis and its regulation
Define enzyme. Classify with suitable examples. Discuss the various types of enzyme Inhibitions with clinical examples.
Acetylcholine can be synthesized from which amino acid: a. Tyrosine b. Serine c. Threonine d. Tryptophan
Describe the absorption, transport and storage of iron in the body. Explain the regulation of iron homeostasis. Enumerate the biochemical functions of iron. Add a note on disorders associated iron metabolism.
Discuss vitamin D under the following headings a) source b) daily requirements c) metabolism d) biochemical functions e) deficiency manifestations
Renal regulation of acid base balance
Define translation. Describe the steps of Translation. Add a note on its inhibitors.
Describe the classification and structural organization of lipoproteins? Write in detail about the transportation of lipids in the body. Add a note on disorders of lipoproteins.
Non protein amino acid is a. Ornithine b. Homocysteine c. Histamine d. All of them
Mention the major functions of HMP shunt pathway. Explain its importance in erythrocytes.
Ketone body metabolism.
Why Adenosine deaminase deficiency causes lymphocytopenia?
What are isoenzymes. Explain the clinical significance of the isoenzymes of CPK.
a) Define and classify enzymes giving one example each. b) Enumerate the factors affecting enzyme activity c) Describe the different types of enzyme inhibition with appropriate examples
Ammonia is trapped in brain by a) Glutamine Synthetase reaction b) Glutaminase reaction c) Urea Synthesis cycle d) Glutamate dehydrogenase reaction
Describe the process of transcription by providing the details on the following • Requisites • Promoters • Pre – initiation complex • Initiation, Elongation and termination • Inhibitors • Post – transcriptional modifications
Creatinine clearance and its clinical significance.
Define Enzyme, what are the factors affecting enzyme activity. Explain various mechanism of enzyme regulation.
Describe the HMP Shunt pathway and its significance
Define the lipoproteins and classify them. Explain the LDL metabolism. Write about Atherosclerosis.
What are the principles of DNA replication. Add a note on inhibitors of replication.
Gluconeogenesis is decreased by a) Glucagon b) Epinephrine c) Glucocorticoids d) Insulin
Functions and deficiency manifestations of vitamin A
What is the normal pH of blood. Describe the renal regulation of Acid Base homeostasis.
Name the ketone bodies. Describe their synthesis and catabolism. Write the causes of ketosis.
Discuss the structural and functional organization of the electron transport chain. Add a note on its inhibitors.
Competitive Inhibition of enzymes with examples
Write in detail about ATP synthesis in the body. Write briefly about inhibitors of ATP.
Serum calcium homeostasis
Glycogen storage diseases
Purine Catabolism
Catabolism of Heme
Explain the effect of Temperature and Substrate concentration on enzyme activity.
Enumerate two hormones which affect calcium and phosphorus metabolism. Mention how these hormones regulate them in the body.
Define Beta oxidation. Enumerate the steps and add a note on its regulation. Explain the energetics for palmitic acid
Describe in detail about purine catabolism. Add a note on Hyperuricemia
Which of the following enzymes is not classified under transferases a. Hexokinase b. SGOT c. Tryptophan pyrrolase d. Thiophorase
Kussmaul’s Breathing is seen in Metabolic acidosis. Justify.
Why number of tRNA required is less than the number of codons. Why Degeneracy of genetic code reduces the effect of mutations.
What is Gout. Give an account of the causes, biochemical base of clinical manifestations, investigations and management of Gout
a) G6PD protects against malaria, justify b) Alcoholics are prone to Hypoglycemia, justify
Principles and application of ELISA
There are two statements marked as-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the options provided a) Both A and R are correct & R is the reason for A c) A incorrect R Correct b) A correct R incorrect d) Both A and R are incorrect
Assertion: Aspartate aminotransferase is a non-functional plasma enzyme Reason: It is actively secreted into plasma
Assertion: In pregnancy there is negative nitrogen balance Reason: Growth of foetus results in increased utilization of amino acids
Assertion: Cell has low intracellular sodium Reason: Intracellular sodium concentration is maintained by Na+K+ATPase
Assertion: Our diet should contain a mixture of cereals and pulses Reason: Cereals (rice) lack lysine and threonine, pulses (Bengal gram) lack cysteine, methionine
Assertion: Methotrexate is a competitive inhibitor of folate reductase enzyme Reason: Methotrexate is a structural analogue of folic acid
Diagrammatically represent the structure of trna. Describe the functions of tRNA.
Specific dynamic action
Describe in detail the reactions of transamination and oxidative deamination. Add a note on the significance of these reactions
Metabolism of tryptophan
Plasma proteins and its functions
Molecular basis, clinical features and diagnosis of sickle cell anemia.
Ammonia is trapped in the brain by: a. Glutamine synthase reaction b. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1 c. Citrate synthase d. Glutamate dehydrogenase
Give the sources of carbon and nitrogen atoms of purine and pyrimidine rings. How is the de novo synthesis regulated. Indicate the clinical uses of inhibitors of purine nucleotide synthesis.
Explain the steps of β-oxidation of palmitic acid, giving energetics.
Describe the source, biochemical functions, and deficiency manifestations of thiamine.
Define Detoxfication. Mention four reactions of Phase 2 detoxification.
The following nitrogenous base not present in DNA structure a. Adenine b. Guanine c. Cytosine d. Uracil
Discuss the detoxification of ammonia in the body. Mention two inborn errors associated with it.
Absorption of carbohydrates.
Justify the statement “When lactose concentration increases, the lac operon is induced”
What is Phenylketonuria. Describe the catabolism of Phenyl Alanine.
Describe the denovosynthesis of fatty acid. Add a note its regulation
Electrophoresis.
The Major Donor of Carbon Atoms to the One-Carbon Pool is a) Serine b) Tyrosine c) Threonine d) Proline
What is the normal reference range for serum calcium. How is it regulated.
Structure of B-DNA. Add a note on different types of DNA.
How are lipids digested and absorbed. Add a note on the associated disorders
Structure and functions of phospholipid
Describe how heme is degraded into bile pigments. Add a note on different types of jaundice
Gluconeogenesis
Describe the dietary sources, daily requirement and deficiency symptoms of Vitamin D.
Normal serum calcium and its regulation
Define porphyria. Classify porphyria and enumerate their salient features. Add a note on acute intermittent porphyria
Describe the reactions of Beta oxidation in the mitochondrial matrix. Add a note on ATP yield from palmitate.
Glucose transporters
The greatest buffering capacity at physiological pH would be provided by a protein rich in which of the following amino acids? a. Serine b. Cysteine c. Alanine d. Histidine
Mention the types of Porphyrias with their enzyme defects
Describe how ketone bodies are formed and degraded in the human body.
Absorption, transport and storage of iron in the body.
Enumerate the steps of TCA cycle. Add a note on malate shuttle
PCR Test
a. Premature babies with low L/S ratio are known to develop respiratory distress syndrome. Justify b. Lysosomes are called Suicidal bags. Give reason
2. Why RTPCR is better than Conventional PCR?
Enzymes bind to substrate: a. By covalent bonds b. By glycosidic bond c. At catalytic site only d. Peptide bond
Describe the principles and applications of ELISA
a) Iron is one-way element substantiate. b) Wilson's disease is associated with bronze diabetes, substantiate
Renal regulation of pH.
A 24 year old student presents with complaints of muscle pain and cramps, stiffness, tingling of hands and feet and recurrent carpopedal spasms.
The most likely diagnosis in the above condition will be a) Hypercalcemia b) Tetany c) Hyperparathyroidism d) Rickets
Calcium is responsible for all of the following functions EXCEPT a) Neuromuscular transmission c) Intracellular messenger b) Blood coagulation d) Activation of vitamin D
All the statements regarding calcitonin are correct EXCEPT a) Increases serum calcium level c) Decreases intestinal absorption of calcium b) Decreases serum calcium level d) Increases calcium excretion from renal tubules
All of the following promote calcium absorption EXCEPT a) Vitamin D c) Lysine and arginine b) Parathyroid hormone d) Phytates
Parathyroid hormone is involved in a) Activation of vitamin D c) Decreases intestinal absorption of calcium b) Increases phosphate reabsorption in kidneys d) None of the above
Principle and applications of Beer-Lamberts law. Add a note on colorimetry
Metabolism of galactose
Nutritional classification of protein with examples
Rapaport Leubering pathway
Vitamins with antioxidant function
Outline the metabolism of glycine under following heads. Synthesis of glycine, synthesis of biologically important compounds from glycine.
Tertiary structure of protein describes: a. The sequence of amino acids b. The location of disulfide bonds c. Amino terminal end amino acid d. The nature of protein folding
Describe the process of DNA replication in eukaryotes. Name two inhibitors of replication.
Describe the steps by which catecholamines are synthesized. Outline the pathway of their degradation.
Discuss the biochemical alterations seen in blood and urine in hepatocellular jaundice
What are Oncogenes. Name four tumour markers with their clinical relevance
The bonds in protein structure that are not broken on denaturation a. Hydrogen bonds b. Peptide bonds c. lonic bonds d. Disulfide bonds
What is transamination. Explain the diagnostic significance of any one serum transaminase.
Why does Peroxidation of PUFA leads to loss of membrane function?
A 15-year old African boy studying in India was admitted to the medical ward with complaints of fever and severe body pains. On examination, hepatosplenomegaly was detected. His Hb levels were found to be very low (6.5g/dL).Microscopic examination of his blood smear revealed sickle-shaped RBC
Molecular basis of HbS is a) Normal 2α and 2β globin chains c) Normal 2α and abnormal 2β globin chains b) Abnormal 2α and normal 2β globin chains d) Abnormal 2α and 2β globin chains
All the below complications can occur for the boy EXCEPT a) Vasoocclusive crisis b) Organ damage c) Bleeding disease d) Pain and swelling in joints
In HbS, which of the following is true. a) Valine replaced by glutamate c) Glutamate replaced by valine b) Valine replaced by glycine d) Glycine replaced by valine
In sickle cell disease, sickling of RBCs is favorable when hemoglobin S is in a) Oxygenated form b) Deoxygenated form c) Glycated form d) Oxidized form
Regarding HbS and HbA all are true EXCEPT a) Inclusion bodies will be seen both in HbS and HbA b) Solubility of deoxy HbS is lower than deoxy HbA c) HbS is slower moving on electrophoresis than HbA d) Structural difference is with regard to beta chain
Describe the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane with a neatly labeled diagram.
Describe the steps of catabolism of phenyl alanine and tyrosine. Add a note on inborn errors associated with them
Beri Ber
Which amino acid will give rise to major pigment of the body? a) Histidine b) Glutamic acid c) Ornithine d) Tyrosine
Mention the origin of carbon and nitrogen atoms in purine ring.
Explain glycolysis, regulation and its energetics
Mitochondria – Structure and Functions
What are the different types of RNA. Add a note on function of tRNA.
A 65-year-old male patient came to medicine department with complaints of decreased urine output with generalized edema for past 3 weeks. He was a known osteoarthritic patient and was taking NSAIDs for past 6 years.
Gold standard method to study glomerular filtration rate is a) Inulin clearance b) Creatinine clearance c) Urea clearance d) Uric acid clearance
All the following formulae are used to calculate estimated glomerular filtration rate in adults EXCEPT a) CKD−EPI formula b) Schwartz formula c) MDRD formula d) Cockcroft Gault formula
Which of the following clinical condition is an example for overflow proteinuria a) Hemoglobinuria b) Glomerulonephritis c) Fever d) Diabetic nephropathy
Fractional excretion of sodium of <1% indicates a) End stage renal disease b) Renal failure c) Normal renal function d) Prerenal failure
Microalbuminuria is excretion of albumin in urine of a) <30 mg/day b) 30–300 mg/day c) 300–1000 mg/day d) >1000 mg/day
Functions and significance of Low density lipoprotein
The following are the values obtained in an Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) analysis. (a) Name the acid-base disorder based on the findings in the above report. (b) Mention the possible causes for the above acid-base disorder. (c) Explain the compensatory mechanism in the above acid-base disorder.
Types of RNA and their functions
Describe the signs and symptoms of Thiamine deficiency.
What are the causes, biochemical findings and compensatory mechanisms in metabolic acidosis.
Cori’s cycle and its significance
Write briefly on the biologically important compounds synthesized from Glycine.
Transamination reactions
Oxidative phase of HMP Pathway
Purely ketogenic amino acid is a. Leucine b. Threonine c. Isoleucine d. Tyrosine
Respiratory Regulation of Blood pH
Formation of uric Acid
Cardiac biomarkers.
Name three B complex vitamins and its co-enzymes forms
Describe the salient features of any two types of enzyme inhibition with suitable examples
Vitamin B12 is always used with Folic acid in treatment of Macrocytic anaemia - Give reasons.
Why presence of HbF in higher concentration is beneficial to the patients with Sickle cell disease and beta thalassemia
Enumerate liver function tests. Describe any two of them in detail
a) Benedict's test is semiquantitative. Justify b) Cellulose is not digested by humans. Give reasons
What is transamination. Mention clinical importance of any two transaminases
Enumerate the applications of recombinant DNA technology. Add a note on vectors
A 51 year male came to medical OPD with complaints of feeling weak and tired for past 2 months. He had polyuria, polydipsia and felt hungry in between meals. He also has family history of Diabetes. His lab reports are: ● Fasting blood glucose: 176 mg/dl, Postprandial blood glucose: 410 mg/dl, ● Blood urea- 27mg/dl, HbA1c - 14% ● Urine: Albumin - nil, Sugar +++, Ketone bodies - nil, a) What is the probable diagnosis b) Enumerate the diagnostic criteria for Diabetes Mellitus as per American Diabetes Association (ADA) c) Discuss lab investigations done to diagnose Diabetes Mellitus with their normal levels
Classify renal function tests. Describe clearance tests in detail
Regulation of cholesterol synthesis
Define isoenzymes. Discuss the clinical significance of different isoenzyme variants of creatine kinase
Name three glycosaminoglycans and their functions
State factors affecting calcium absorption
Describe the steps of beta oxidation. Calculate the energetics from palmitic acid. (6+2)
Formation of dTMP requires a. Coenzyme A b. NADPH c. Vitamin C d. Molybdenum
Describe recombinant DNA technology. Add a note on its applications.
How are dietary triglycerides absorbed and transported in plasma. Briefly explain the transport of dietary triglyceride from intestine to liver.
Explain renal regulation of maintaining blood pH
Which is a sulfur containing essential amino acid a. Methionine b. Cysteine c. Cystine d. All of them
What is glutathione and mention its importance in the body.
Why Urine colour appears pink to red in porphyria cutanea tarda?
An unconscious patient was rushed to the Emergency department of the hospital. History taken from the attendant revealed that patient was a known Diabetic, blood samples were collected and sent to clinical laboratory for analysis. a) What could be your probable diagnosis b) Which relevant investigations you would suggest for this patient c) Explain the role of Kidneys in maintenance of Acid base homeostasis d) How is the compensation brought about in this patient
Explain the Quarternary structure of proteins with example.
Outline the pathway of heme synthesis. Mention its regulation
Homogentisic acid is excreted in urine in a) Phenylketonuria b) Maple syrup urine disease c) Tyrosinosis d) Alkaptonuria
Describe the various stages of replication and add a note on DNA repair mechanism
Wald’s visual cycle
What is thalassemia. Discuss the clinical features, molecular basis and laboratory diagnosis of thalassemia
Km value and its significance
What is the role of kidney in the regulation of pH
A 35-year-old male patient was admitted with complaints of drowsiness and vision loss. Detailed history revealed he has consumed alcohol adulterated with cheap methanol on the previous day. His Arterial blood gas analysis report is as follows. Blood pH: 7.2, HCO₃‾: 16 mmol/L, pCO₂: 41 mm Hg a) What acid base imbalance, the patient probably has b) What are the normal reference ranges for the given ABG parameters c) What are buffers. List any TWO intracellular and extracellular buffers d) Explain the role of kidneys in blood pH regulation.
Hormonal regulation of blood sugar
Purine salvage pathways
Draw a neat labeled diagram of electron transport chain. Add a note on chemiosmotic hypothesis
Describe any two Shuttle mechanisms across the mitochondrial membrane.
RNA synthesis is different from DNA synthesis com in the following ways, except: a. No efficient proofreading function during RNA synthesis b. Primer is not involved in RNA synthesis com c. DNA synthesis occurs with 5'-3' polarity, whereas RNA synthesis occurs with 3'-5' polarity d. 'U' replaces 'T' as the complementary base for 'A' in RNA synthesis
Prostaglandins
Applications of Radioactive Isotopes
Functions of vitamin B6
Describe the secondary structure of proteins.Give examples.
Rickets
Define nitrogen balance. Add a note on the clinical conditions altering nitrogen balance
RFT
Sodium glucose transport is called secondary active transport. Justify.
Why are globulins increased in chronic liver disease but albumin is decreased? Why Edema is seen in Liver disease?
Describe recombinant DNA technology. What are the applications of the technique
a) Vitamin B12 deficiency results in a Folate trap. Why? b) Vitamin K injection is given to all newborns. Why?
Anti oxidant enzymes and vitamins.
Isoenzymes and its diagnostic importance
Describe the structure and functions of immunoglobulins
Write in detail about sources, RDA, coenzyme forms, causes and deficiency manifestations of folic acid
Describe PCR and its applications. Add a note on its significance in diagnosis of covid-19
Digestion and absorption of lipids
Role of cytochromes in Electron transport chain
Trans methylation reactions
Clinical applications of tumor markers
Causes, clinical features, biochemical manifestations and treatment of kwashiorkor.
Secondary hyperuricemia is present in all the following conditions a. Polycythemia b. Cytotoxic drug therapy c. Leukemia d. Hepatitis
Name the renal clearance tests. Give details of any one of them. What is its clinical significance
What are the different types of enzyme inhibition. Explain with suitable examples.
Enumerate different immunoglobulins. Describe the structure of immunoglobulin
What is the normal serum calcium level. How is it regulated.
The following coenzyme is a nucleotide a. FAD b. NAD+ c. CoASH d. All of them
Biochemical defect, clinical features and diagnosis of phenylketonuria.
Why do individuals with IgA deficiency often present with recurrent respiratory and gastrointestinal infections?
Define and explain the steps involved in the process of Translation. What is Post Translational modifications, give four examples
What is reverse cholesterol transport.
Ochronosis is seen in a) Phenyl Ketonuria b) Alkaptonuria c) Tyrosinosis d) Albinism
Primary and secondary immune response
Functions and deficiency manifestations of thiamine
Define dietary fibres. Give suitable examples and their biomedical importance.
Hormones regulating blood glucose level
Salvage pathway of purine synthesis
A 45-year-old known alcoholic for 15 years was admitted to emergency with hematemesis in an unconscious state. On examination he was jaundiced with massive ascites. His serum bilirubin was 11 mg/dL. a) What is your probable diagnosis b) Explain the metabolism of bilirubin in the body c) What are types of hyperbilirubinemias and their causes d) Differentiate different types of jaundice based on biochemical investigations in a table format
Secondary structure of protein
Importance of Selenium in the human body.
Describe the coenzyme form, sources, biomedical role and deficiency manifestation of syndrome
Classification of enzymes with suitable examples.
Phospholipids
The translation factor which helps in forming ternary tRNA methionine complex is: a. elF2C b. elF4A c. elF4B d. elF3
Define point mutation and types with one example
Explain the role of Carnitine in fatty acid oxidation.
Discuss the catabolism of heme. Describe the causes and laboratory finding in obstructive jaundice
Mechanisms of hormone action
Dietary fibres are included in balanced diet. Give reasons.
A 3-year-old girl presents with poor growth, fatigue, pallor, macrocytic anemia. Despite treatment with Iron, B12 and folic acid, the anemia persists. Urine examination shows orotic acid. a) What is your probable diagnosis? b) Which enzyme is defective? c) How does uridine supplementation help in this disorder? How does this condition lead to macrocytic anemia? A 56 year old woman presents with swelling and pain in the first toe of the right foot. Her uric acid level was 8 mg/dL. Write the degradation of purine nucleotides.
Explain the salient features of structural organization of collagen. Mention the major disorders associated with collagen structure and function
Describe the regulation of blood glucose. Mention the normal level of haemoglobin A1c in healthy individuals, pre-diabetics and Diabetics. Write its significance
Mention the biochemical functions of calcium and describe the blood calcium homeostasis
A 49-year-old women was admitted to hospital. She had polyuria, lost weight, had a fruity odour in breath.The following were her lab reports. ● Blood glucose= 450 mg/dl, ● Urine glucose= 4+, Urine Rothera’s test= positive, Urine pH= 5.5 a) What is the probable diagnosis. b) Explain the clinical features of the disorder. c) Write briefly about ketogenesis.
Discuss the structure and functions of immunoglobulin. Add a note on monoclonal antibodies
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
Diagnostic importance of enzymes
List the cardiac markers
Sources, biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of niacin.
Which of the below mentioned enzyme does not contain copper: a. Cytochrome oxidase b. Superoxide dismutase c. Xanthine oxidase d. Tyrosinase
Enumerate the immunoglobulin and classify their functions. Describe the structure of immunoglobulins.
Enumerate the steps of purine catabolism. Add a note on gout.
Iron in the mucosal cells binds with the protein a. Transferrin b. Ferritin c. Ceruloplasmin d. Hemosiderin
Role of carnitine in fatty acid oxidation with the help of a diagram.
Definition and characteristics of denaturation.
A 38-year-old chronic alcoholic male presents with abdominal pain and jaundice. His lab results show, ALT: 150 IU/L, AST: 200 IU/L, ALP: 250 IU/L, GGT: 440 IU/L, Total bilirubin: 8 mg/dl, direct bilirubin: 6 mg/dl. a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) Interpret the laboratory investigation? c) How is bilirubin transported in blood?
A patient gave history of recurrent episodes of vomiting and fever. On examination he was icteric, dehydrated and his liver was palpable. Following is the biochemical report of this patient: Serum total Bilirubin- 12 mg% conjugated bilirubin – 5.5 mg %, unconjugated bilirubin - 6.5 mg %, serum Alkaline phosphatase – 278 IU /L, AST – 235 IU/L , ALT – 365 IU/ L, Bile salts – Negative, Bile Pigments – positive , Fecal stercobilinogen – positive. a) What could be your probable Diagnosis b) Explain how Bilirubin is formed and excreted from the body.
What are mucopolysaccharides. Give examples.
Explain how proteins are digested and absorbed in the body
Iron deficiency Anemia
The anti-coagulant found in the body a) Potassium oxalate b) Sodium Citrate c) Heparin d) EDTA
What are the sources for purine ring. Enumerate the reactions in denovo synthesis of purine nucleotide. Add a note on its regulation.
Trace elements
Explain electron transport chain with a suitable diagram. Add a note on the inhibitors of ETC
Fate of pyruvate
What is mutation. Describe point mutation and frameshift mutation
What is an operon. Draw the basic structure of Lac operon. Explain the regulation of Lac operon under following conditions, a] presence of glucose only and b] presence of lactose only.
Non-Competitive inhibition
DNA repair mechanisms
What are tumour markers. Give examples.
What is the role of buffers in regulating blood pH
Glycemic index: definition and importance
Functions of Vitamin C
Differential diagnosis of Jaundice by Laboratory tests.
Nucleosomes are a fundamental unit of DNA organization. It consists of histones complexed to DNA. Histone proteins present in nucleosomes are rich in which of the following amino acids: a. Histidine and lysine b. Lysine and arginine c. Arginine and histidine d. Histidine and valine
ATP synthase complex
Absorption and transport of iron
Describe the Malate Aspartate shuttle.
What are the sources of vitamin A. Enumerate the biochemical role and deficiency manifestations of vitamin A
Electrolytes
Enumerate the biomarkers used in diagnosis of Myocardial infarction. Discuss the pattern of elevation of various enzymes in Myocardial infarction
A 40-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. Biopsy shows overexpression of HER2/neu oncogene. a) What is this condition? b) Explain the role of proto-oncogenes and oncogenes in cancer development with suitable examples
What is code. Describe the salient features of genetic code
A 6-year-old boy presents with spongy bleeding gums, swollen gingiva, and painful swelling of joints with pale conjunctivae. The pediatrician advised the mother to give plenty of citrus fruits to her child a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) Which biomolecule is deficient in this condition? c) What are the functions of this biomolecule?
Isomerism of carbohydrates
Role of cytokines in immunity
Give an account of formation of specialized products from glycine and their clinical importance.
Contractile proteins
Isoenzymes - 2 Examples
Fatty liver and lipotropic factors
Zinc is constituent of all the following enzymes except: a. Alkaline phosphatase b. Amylase c. Carbonic anhydrase
Transamination
Ribosomes
Regulation of heme synthesis
Biochemical role of iron
Hemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor a. X b. V c. Vill d. Il
A 58-year-old male with sepsis presents with serum Urea: 120 mg/dl, creatinine: 2.3 mg/dL. urine output: 450 mL/day. a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) Mention the other causes for this organ failure. c) Differentiate creatinine vs urea clearance
Discuss the clinical features, Biochemical basis and diagnosis of Gout
What is Allosteric Inhibition of enzymes. Give one example.
tRNA
Functions of vitamin E
Enumerate the sources, daily requirement and deficiency manifestation of vitamin C.
Amphibolic role of TCA cycle
A 23-year-old man attended endocrinology department with complaints of loss of weight in spite of good appetite and intolerance to heat. His eyes are appearing bigger in the past few weeks. His physician suggested thyroid profile. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) What is the basis for protruding eyes in this patient c) What biochemical changes are expected in the thyroid profile in primary and secondary conditions
Anapleurotic reactions of citric acid cycle
Biochemical role of Vitamin B12
Name the applications of recombinant DNA technology.
List the blot/blotting techniques and the applications of each type.
Lysosomes
Coenzyme forms of Niacin and Riboflavin
Which out of the following is nota product of tyrosine metabolism: a. Melanin b. Melatonin c. Thyroxin d. Epinephrine
What is Von Gierkes disease. Name the enzyme involved.
Name various blotting techniques and their significance Answer briefly
Define Peptide bonds. Enumerate two biochemically important peptides and their significance.
Two compounds derived from tyrosine
Discuss the Nutritional Causes of Anaemia. Add a note on Absorption, Transport and storage of Iron
Explain the assessment of renal tubular function.
Biochemical test for the investigation of iron deficiency anaemia
A 48-year-old man suddenly develops excruciating pain and is rushed to the hospital. ECG reveals massive myocardial infarction. a) List all cardiac enzymes used for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction and their pattern of elevation. b) Which is the most specific biomarker for Myocardial Infarction? c) Which is the most commonly used thrombolytic agent for myocardial infarction?
Tubular function tests.
Define mutations. Describe the causes of mutation
Explain Homocystinurias in detail, with clinical presentations and lab tests.
Mucosal block theory
Oral glucose tolerance test - Indications
What are amphipathic lipids. Add a note on its significance
Suicide Inhibition
Applications of radioisotopes in medicine
Fat is burnt under the fire of carbohydrates. Justify this statement.
Which of the enzyme listed below is heat stable? a. Restriction endonuclease b. Thermo thermophilus c. Reverse transcriptase d. Enterokinase
Hormonal regulation of calcium level
Biological role of Vitamin K
Ig G
The only route through which H+ ions are eliminated from the body a. Lungs b. Stomach c. Kidneys d. None of them
What is isoelectric pH and mention its significance.
What are the causes for Hypothyroidism? Enumerate thyroid function tests
Thyroid function tests and their significance
Invert Sugar.
Administration of diuretics cause loss of potassium which may lead to a) Metabolic acidosis b) Respiratory acidosis c) Respiratory alkalosis d) Metabolic alkalosis
Why heat coagulation is an irreversible process
Name four applications of radioactivity in diagnosis and management of diseases.
A two-year-old was brought to the pediatrics with complaints of increased tiredness and duration of sleep for past 6 weeks. On examination the child was anemic with frontal bossing and dental malocclusion. His Hb electrophoresis was as follows: HbA: 93.6% and HbA2: 6.4%. a) What is the probable diagnosis b) What are the types, clinical features and treatment of this disorder.
Calcitriol formation
Keratin.
Lipotrophic factors
Products of HMP shunt pathway
Uses of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
Which one of these inhibits adenylyl cyclase: a. ACTH b. ADH c. Angiotensin II d. Glucagon
Significance of 2,3 BPG
Urinary picture of different types of Jaundice
Biochemical basis of allopurinol in the treatment of gout
Two nucleosides
A patient comes to physician’s clinic with chief complaints of swelling of gums, petechial hemorrhages with easy bruisability since 3 months a) What is the deficient water soluble vitamin? b) Explain the biochemical functions of deficient vitamin. c) Describe the deficiency manifestations of the vitamin
Explain the formation and degradation of Bilirubin
Biochemical functions of Copper and disorders associated with copper metabolism
Describe the composition, functions, and applied aspects of phospholipids
Tests for detection of ketone bodies in the urine
Hormones as tumor markers
Enumerate the causes, peripheral blood picture and laboratory findings in Iron deficiency anemia.
Myogiobin - Functions
Compounds derived from cholesterol
Wilson’s disease
The following are the vectors for gene therapy except: a. Retrovirus b. E. Coli c. Adenovirus d. Liposome
Van den Bergh test
Name the tumor markers for (a) prostate carcinoma (b) Colon cancer (c) carcinoid syndrome (d) hepatoma
Passive immunity
Element that prevents the development of dental caries a. Fluorine b. Calcium c. Phosphorus d. Sodium
What are lipotropic factors and name them.
Functions of apolipoproteins.
Enumerate the applications of Recombinant DNA technology
Explain the transport of dietary lipids from intestine
Which of the following conditions will produce high anion gap acidosis? a) Diarrhea b) Renal tubular acidosis c) Renal failure d) Uretero sigmoidostomy
Give two examples for Phase II detoxification reaction.
Introns and exons.
Hypoglycemia
Essential amino acids
Application of ELISA test
Protooncogenes are normal cellular genes which are activated to oncogenes. Explain the mechanisms by which protooncogenes are converted to oncogenes with relevant examples.
Outline the pathway of purine catabolism.
Brown adipose tissue.
Compare and contrast amylose and amylopectin.
PUFA (Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acids)
Products derived from cholesterol
Biochemical basis of thalassemia
Which is the major intracellular cation: a. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca2+ d. Mg2+
Liposomes.
Define anion gap and mention its normal range.
Golgi complex
Structure of DNA
Discuss the biochemical and clinical significance of HMP shunt pathway.
What are the different structural levels of proteins? Explain any two in detail
Reactive oxygen species
Describe the Chemiosmotic theory of Oxidative phosphorylation. Add a note on its inhibitors
What is anaplerosis.
Explain the absorption of iron
What is BMR. How is it measured. What is its normal value. What are the factors affecting BMR.
Effects of free radicals
Enzymes elevated in acute pancreatitis
Give two examples for therapeutic uses of enzyme
Causes of mutations
Isoenzymes and their clinical significance
Unusual nucleotide bases are found in significant quantity in: a. Messenger RNA b. Ribosomal RNA c. Transfer RNA d. snRNA
Biological effect of radiation on tissues
Creatinine clearance tests and its significance
The anion with highest concentration in the extracellular fluids is a. Cl- b. HCO3- c. HPO4- d. Protein
Differentiate between starch and glycogen.
Explain the structure of DNA with a neatly labelled diagram
Lung Surfactant.
Biochemical functions of vitamin A
ECF volume does not change with a) ADH b) Aldosterone c) Calcitriol d) Renin
Peroxisomes
C peptide
Alpha fetoprotein
Trans fatty acids
Immunoglobulin E and its significance
Explain how are free radicals scavenged in the body.
Isoenzymes and significance
Acute phase proteins
Micro arrays.
Two factors which shift oxygen dissociation curve to the right
Role of zinc
Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by: a. Cholera b. Starvation c. Ethylene glycol poisoning d. Lactic acidosis
Familial hypercholesterolemia
List two clinical conditions of abnormal haemoglobulin
Discuss the formation of melanin and add a note on albinism
Normal blood and urine pH
Compare and contrast between competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibition with suitable examples.
Detoxification of bilirubin
Describe any five different transport mechanisms with examples.
What is Hypokalaemia. Name any one cause.
Formation of 2,3 BPG
Explain the Watson and crick model of DNA
Enumerate the cardiac biomarkers and give an account of their pattern of elevation in myocardial infarction
Balanced diet
Protein denaturation
Folic acid antagonists
Denaturation of DNA is accompanied by all the following changes except: a. Hyperchromicity b. Increase in viscosity c. Unstacking of base d. Double helix structure
Chemiosmotic theory
Fight, fright and flight hormone is a. Thyroxine b. Aldosterone c. Epinephrine d. ADH
Classify amino acids based on its metabolic fate.
Sources of acetyl CoA.
Define Genetic code. Explain the characteristic features of Genetic code
Glucose Tolerance Test – give two indications. Explain the different responses seen
Isoelectric pH and its significance.
Folate trap Give Precise Answers
The cation with lowest intra cellular concentration a) Potassium b) Magnesium c) Sodium d) Calcium
Structure of tRNA and its function
Name four therapeutically important enzymes and their significance
Functions of pyridoxal phosphate
Explain how collagen structure is modified after it is synthesized. Add a note on any ONE clinical condition that affects post translational modifications of collagen.
Functions of selenium
Write the differences between DNA and RNA.
Role of oxidative stress in pathogenesis of cancer.
Functions of cholesterol
Write briefly on Covalent modification of enzymes with two suitable examples.
High Energy Compounds
Gout-Clinical features and Lab Diagnosis
The major urinary buffer is: a. Bicarbonate b. Phosphate c. Protein d. Hemoglobin
Deficiency features of essential fatty acids
Give the differences between hexokinase and glucokinase.
One mechanism of activation of proto-oncogenes to oncogenes
Describe the synthesis of any two compounds of biomedical importance synthesized from glycine
Mention two carcinogens
Describe Oxidative phosphorylation. Add a note on its inhibitors
Describe the structure of tRNA with functions.
What is genetic code.
Classify enzyme inhibition. Describe competitive enzyme inhibition with suitable examples
Draw and label t – RNA.
Enzyme defect in the methyl malonyl aciduria and refsum’s disease
Rf value
Enumerate the different types of Glucose transporters and their locations. Add a note on glucose absorption in GIT.
Biochemical defect in orotic aciduria
Uronic acid pathway
Epimers
Protein digestion starts in-----------
Administration of diuretics causes loss of potassium ions which can lead to: a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
Hyperkalaemia is treated by giving glucose and insulin. Why
Why is heat coagulation irreversible
Give the normal reference range for serum potassium
Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from a. Mother only b. Father only c. Both of them d. Either mother or father
List two examples for competitive inhibition with its clinical applications.
The Immunoglobulin which provides the highest antiviral activity is a) lgG b) IgE c) lgD d) lgA
Explain structural and functional relationship of proteins
Role of Glucuronic acid in Detoxification
NADPH generating steps in HMP shunt pathway
Vandenberg Test
Which contains iron a) Ceruloplasmin b) Xanthine oxidase c) Albumin d) Superoxide desmutase
Reference level of S. creatinine and blood urea.
Chromatography
Name two metabolites of biochemical importance formed in HMP pathway
Regulation of absorption of iron
Methemoglobinemias
Name two phospho lipids, and their functions
Scurvy Give precise answers
Van Den Berghs test.
Enzyme defect in Lesch – Nyhan syndrome.
Power house of the cell is --------------
Classification of Lipoproteins
Name any two tumor markers and conditions in which they are elevated
Marker enzyme for Golgi complex is: a. Galactosyl transferase b. Catalase c. Glucose 6 phosphatase d. None
Marasmus
Conjugation phase of Detoxification
Serum electrophoresis and its clinical importance
Mention one function and one deficiency manifestation of vitamin B12
Explain different types of protein-energy malnutrition.
Explain post translational modifications.
Action of reverse transcriptase
Define an Anion gap. Mention its normal reference range. Describe different types of anion gap with examples
Name any two inhibitors of replication.
What are the important substances synthesized from tyrosine.
Mention any two applications of PCR
Mention the causes of fatty liver and name the lipotropic factors.
Disease associated with DNA repair
Enzyme defect in (a) Alkaptonuria (b) Von Gierke’s Disease
Enzyme defect in Homocystinuria
Normal value of anion gap
Primary structure of a protein refers to-----------
Hydroxylation occurs in which of the following amino acids in collagen: a. Threonine b. Alanine c. Lysine d. Tryptophan
Name two antimutagens
Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar. Why
What enzymes are required for regeneration of all-trans retinal
Give an example of post transcriptional modification
The anion gap refers to the unmeasured plasma anion concentration (in the laboratory) and is represented by a. Proteins and organic acids b. Phosphate and sulfate c. Urate d. All of them
What is gamma amino butyric acid and mention one function.
What are Acute phase proteins? Give examples and mention their clinical significance
Chain breaking and Preventive antioxidants
Name two Non Reducing Disaccharides.
Give RDA for i) Vitamin D ii) Folic Acid
Which enzyme do not contain copper? a) Cytochrome Oxidase b) Superoxide dismutase c) Xanthine oxidase d) Tyrosinase
Mention any two applications of Electrophoresis
N functions of t-RNA
Isoelectric pH of albumin
Total ATP synthesized with one molecule of glucose
Give two examples of preventive antioxidants
Restriction endonucleases – types, action and applications.
Name the disease caused by deficiency of Vitamin C.
Functions of iodine.
Marker enzyme for Golgi apparatus
Enzyme defect in (a) Maple Syrup Urine Disease (b) Albinism.
Normal range of serum urea and creatinine
Base-pairing rule
Which of the following is a negative phase reactant a. C Reactive protein b. Albumin c. Fibrinogen d. Ferritin
Biochemical basis of Zellweger’s syndrome
Name two inhibitors of translation
Hypokalemia
Name two biologically important peptides.
One element involved in wound healing
What are homopolysaccharides? Give examples. Explain their importance
What are free radicals? Give examples. Explain the cellular damage caused by free radicals.
Normal serum values of sodium and potassium
What are dietary fibers? Give examples. Mention their RDA. List their functions
Enzyme defect in maple syrup – urine disease
Mention the enzyme deficient in Lesch Nyhan syndrome
Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation.
What is a telomere
Give the marker enzymes for (a) Mitochondria (b) Peroxisomes
Name two oncogenic viruses
Curd is an effective treatment for lactose intolerance. Justify.
Which of the following is due to tumor suppressor mutation? a. Retinoblastoma b. Hyperthyroidism c. Cystic Fibrosis d. Sickle cell disease
Enlist two applications of Southern blotting technique.
Give two examples of high energy compounds
Give the normal anion gap
Methylation of DNA results in a. Recruiting proteins involved in gene repression b. Inactivation of genes c. No effect on genes d. Inactivation of protein motifs
Name the enzyme that is absent in galactosemia.
Mention the normal serum level of cholesterol.
Define Xenobiotics. Explain the phases of detoxification
Structure and two functions of Collagen
Name the essential amino acids.
False positive benedict’s test
Normal plasma levels of (a) sodium (b) potassium
The micro mineral present in teeth is a) Calcium b) lodine c) Fluorine d) Manganese
Two tumour suppressor genes.
Mention two examples of post-translational modification.
What is the reason for hypokalaemia in metabolic acidosis
Cytochrome p450
Clinical importance of serum amylase
What is P53.
A patient presented with excretion of urine more than 20 litres per day. Specific gravity of his urine sample was 1.002. What is your diagnosis.
Give two salient points to compare and contrast hexokinase and glucokinase
In glycolysis, which enzyme is inhibited by fluoride.
Define hypoglycemia
Significance of hippuric acid excretion test
Plasmids contain a a. Circular single stranded DNA b. Linear single stranded DNA c. Circular double stranded DNA d. Linear double stranded DNA
Mention the enzyme which is inhibited by fluoride
β - thalassemia
Enzyme defect in acute intermittent porphyria
Name two cardiac markers
Explain the respiratory regulation for Acid-Base balance.
Differentiate between Phase I and Phase II reactions in detoxification.
References interval for the plasma electrolytes a) sodium b) Potassium
Mention the normal reference interval for serum calcium. What is the RDA for calcium? Describe the regulation of blood calcium
Name the coenzyme forms of a) Pyridoxine b) Pantothenic acid
Limiting aminoacids
Give reason a) 2,3 BPG concentration in RBCs increases in hypoxic conditions. b) Presence of brown adipose tissue in newborns and hibernating animals.
Function of calcium responsible for prevention of tetany
Glycemic index
Normal level of serum uric acid
Name two clinical conditions causing ketosis..
The uptake of iodine by thyroid gland is inhibited by: a. Fluoride b. Perchlorate c. Bromide d. Chloride
Name two vectors used for gene therapy.
Differentiate between cis and trans fatty acids
Two conditions causing reversal of albumin : globulin ratio
Enzyme that removes RNA primer during DNA replication is a. Primase b. DNA polymerase c. DNA polymerase II d. Ligase
Name the reducing substances excreted in urine
Define optimum temperature.
Explain the pathway of Uric acid synthesis
Give reason: a) Plasmids are used commonly as vectors in recombinant DNA techniques b) Low salt diet is recommended in patients with hypertension
Name two tests based on reducing nature of monosaccharides.
Reference interval of following in plasma a) urea b) creatinine
Name two Acute phase proteins
Which of the following trace element has antioxidant role? a) Chromium b) Zinc c) Selenium d) Nickel
Mention any two post translational modifications
List the biological role of vitamin B12
Name two non-carbohydrates which give a positive Benedict’s test
Name two inhibitors of electron transport chain
Define Creatinine clearance
Lifelong learning is essential for a physician.
Glutathione
Markers of cholestasis
Name the enzyme deficient in SCID.
Degeneracy of genetic code.
Function of albumin responsible for preventing edema
Give suitable example for suicide enzyme inhibition.
Why vitamin B1 deficiency leads to brain dysfunction.
Which of the following immunoglobulin crosses placenta a. IgG b. IgM c. IgE d. IgA
Name two tumour markers and their significance
Name the key enzymes of neoglucogenesis.
Vitamin deficiency in pellagra
Name two prostaglandins and mention their importance
What are poly unsaturated fatty acids? Give examples. Mention their significance
Why is lifelong learning an essential commitment for a doctor, and how does it benefit both clinicians and society?
Define mutation
Enumerate and describe the professional qualities of the roles of a Physician
Name the marker enzyme for alcoholism
Describe the Biochemical basis of – a) Difluoro methyl ornithine (DFMO) is effective against trypanosomiasis. b) Proteolytic enzymes of GIT are secreted as zymogens.
Western blot
Give an example for oxidoreductases. Write one reaction catalyzed by oxidoreductase
Clinical importance of acid phosphatase and alkaline phosphatase
Coenzyme form of pantothenic acid
Rate limiting enzyme of Heme synthesis
The following is not an acute phase protein: a. CRP b. Ceruloplasmin c. HDL d. Haptoglobin
What is apoptosis.
Which tissues prefer anaerobic glycolysis
Orotic aciduria is a feature of deficiency of which enzymes
Give two applications for PCR
As per WHO criteria, a person is said to be diabetic in oral glucose tolerance test (GTT) a. Fasting blood glucose exceeds 126 mg/dl, and 2 hours after OGTT goes beyond 200 mg/dl b. Fasting blood glucose exceeds 86 mg/dl, and 2 hours after OGTT goes beyond 100 mg/dl c. Fasting blood glucose exceeds 76 mg/dl, and 2 hours after OGTT goes beyond 92 mg/dl d. None of the above
What are the iso-enzymes of creatine phosphokinase.
Key enzyme of HMP shunt pathway.
Identify and discuss the physician’s role and responsibility to society that he/she serves
Explain the Biochemical basis of : a) Folate antagonists are used as anti cancer drugs b) Hyperkalemia is a life threatening situation
What are the substrates of Neoglucogenesis.
Define Mutarotation
Sigma factor is a) A sub unit of DNA polymerase b) A sub unit of RNA polymerase c) Asub unit of 50S ribosome d) responsible for initiation of replication
Name any two Iron containing enzymes
Name two causes of secondary hyperuricaemia
Name a non-glycerol containing phospholipid and mention its significance.
What is the most common cause of hepatocellular jaundice
Biochemistry basis of a) Paradoxical aciduria in metabolic alkalosis b) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy in CO poisoning
Antioxidant vitamins
What is the role of Telomerase enzyme.
Give the normal plasma levels of following parameters (a) Cholesterol (b) Triglycerides
Biochemical role of vitamin K in coagulation
Which of the following activity is not seen in DNA polymerase I a. 5'-3' polymerase b. 3'-5' polymerase c. 5'-3' exonuclease d. 3'-5' exonuclease
What is renal glycosuria
Coenzyme form of Niacin
Enzyme markers of hepatic jaundice
Name two mucopolysaccharides.
Folic acid antagonist used in the treatment of cancer
Enumerate the advantages of Physician being a Life-long learner.
What is the normal blood level of total cholesterol.
Name the RNA with catalytic activity
A primary health care physician regularly encounters patients suffering from different illnesses. Explain the role of physician as a communicator.
Reverse transcriptase
Give an example for anaplerotic reaction
Promoter region
Patients with G6PD deficiency should not be treated with anti-malarials. Why.
Sodium potassium pump is inhibited by: a. Aspirin b. Digoxin c. Methotrexate d. Rifampicin
Name two inhibitors of RNA synthesis
Name two post transcriptional modifications
Define metabolic acidosis
Carcinoembryonic antigen produced by the embryonic tissue of a. Liver b. Gut c. Pancreas d. All of the above
What are the components of membrane that alter the fluidity.
Doctors should have a commitment for lifelong learning which is important for their professional growth – substantiate the statement.
Give the normal reference range of serum Urea.
Enzyme defect in a) Maple Syrup Urine Disease b) Hereditary Fructose Intolerance
Functions of IgA
Intron is portion of a) DNA that is cleaved of during replication b) mRNA that is removed after transcription c) tRNA that is added on after its synthesis d) Protein removed after translation
Give the principle of RIA
Enzyme defect in MSUD.
Formula to calculate BMI
Which enzyme deficiency causes congenital erythropoietic porphyria
A 55-year-old man was admitted with altered sensorium in emergency department. His lab report was as follows. Serum sodium: 115 mmol/L, serum potassium 4.3 mmol/L, plasma glucose: 83 mg/dL. a) From the given lab report, what is the probable electrolyte imbalance seen in this patient. b) List any THREE causes of the imbalance. c) How is the said serum electrolyte level maintained in the body
Two conditions of hyperuricemia
Give the normal level of serum Calcium.
Fastest moving plasma protein in electrophoresis is---------
Biochemical defect in Lactose intolerance
Which fatty acid accumulation gives rise to Refsum’s disease.
Name two causes for hyperlipidemia
Highly repetitive DNA is seen in a. Telomere b. Centromere c. Both d. None
Inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase
Give the normal levels of serum Albumin and Total Protein.
Immunoglobulin which serves as first line of defense
Give the normal reference range for • Serum triglyceride • Serum creatinine
Name two tumor markers and their clinical applications
Two causes of respiratory acidosis
Benzoic acid, a food preservative, is detoxified by-------------
Normal serum cholesterol level
Oncogenes are specific sequences in DNA: a. That are tumor markers b. When expressed produce cancer c. That code for reverse transcriptase d. Required for DNA replication
Name the limiting amino acids in (a) Pulses (b) Cereals
Give the normal reference range for serum phosphorous
Tetany is associated with the following condition a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Renal rickets
Regulatory enzyme in cholesterol synthesis
Which hormone does not act at the level of transcription a) Cortisol b) Calcitriol c) Aldosterone d) Calcitonin
Give the normal albumin : globulin ratio
Give the normal reference range for • Fasting Blood Glucose • Serum cholesterol
Two copper containing enzymes.
Hetero polysaccharide having anticoagulant function
Which enzyme defect is seen in Homocystinuria type I a. Methionine synthase b. Cystathionine beta synthase c. Cystathioninase d. None of the above
Marker enzyme for mitochondria
Define apoptosis
Name two characteristics of Genetic Code.
Two causes for respiratory acidosis
Enzyme defect in Gaucher's disease.
Patients treated with carbonic anhydrase inhibitor can develop: a. Metabolic acidosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis
Name two copper containing enzymes.
Homogentisic acid is excreted in urine in _________
Give two features of genetic code
HbAic reflects the mean blood glucose level over months period prior to its measurement a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
Name two enzymes that require pyridoxine as coenzyme
M band in serum protein electrophoresis is seen in which condition? a) Cirrhosis b) Chronic infections c) Multiple myeloma d) Heavy chain disease
Wobble effect
Name two specialized compounds derived from glycine
Name four oncogenes.
Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis
All are involved in iron metabolism except a. Hepcidin b. Transthyreth c. Ceruloplasmin d. Ferroprotein
Name two compounds formed from Tryptophan
Name types of immune responses
Give biological reference range for serum sodium
Microalbuminuria
Which amino acids are used for detoxification.
Name the enzyme defect in acute intermittent porphyria
Two enzymes as tumor markers and their clinical relavance
One example for Prion disease.
Define gluconeogenesis
Name the enzyme activity to assess the deficiency of vitamin B1
Mention two causes of metabolic alkalosis
Two functions of magnesium
Give the reference interval in plasma to (a) Sodium (b) Chloride
Newborns, especially premature infants, have relative vitamin K deficiency. Why
Two enzymes as antioxidants
Mention two semi essential amino acids
Give the names of compounds used for estimating clearance
Define epimerism
Reference interval of serum sodium and potassium.
Name the rate limiting enzyme of heme synthesis.
Glycolysis is the only source of energy for the following organ a) Brain b) RBC c) Heart d) Skeletal muscle
The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is a) Squalene synthetase c) Mevalonate kinase b) HMG-CoA reductase d) Ketoacyl reductase
The lipoprotein which donates the apoproteins apo CII and apo E to other lipoproteins is a) LDL b) VLDL c) HDL d) Lp(a)
A patient presented with large yellow tonsils, hepatosplenomegaly, corneal opacity and neuropathy.He most probably suffers from a) Abetalipoproteinemia c) Primary Familial hypercholesterolemia b) Tangier’s disease d) Wolman’s disease
The liver cannot utilize ketone bodies due to lack of the enzyme a) Thiolase b) Thiophorase c) Thioesterase d) All of the above
Transparency of corneal endothelium is maintained by a) Heparan sulphate b) Chondroitin sulphate c) Keratan sulphate d) Hyaluronic acid
All the following are nucleic acids, EXCEPT a) Plasmids b) Prions c) Cosmids d) Virions
All the following statements about a live attenuated vaccine are true, EXCEPT a) A single dose is sufficient b) It induces shorter but effective immunity c) It induces humoral and cell-mediated immunity d) It can be administered by the route of natural infection to induce local immunity
Mismatch repair defect is seen in a) Xeroderma pigmentosa c) MutyH Polyposis b) Hereditary Non polyposis colorectal cancer d) Ataxia Telangiectasia
Which of the following is NOT an emergency investigation a) Potassium b) Fasting glucose c) Creatinine d) Calcium
Which of the following is NOT a nucleoside a) Adenosine b) Guanosine c) Inosine d) Cytosine
Deficiency of all the following enzymes causes hyperuricemia EXCEPT a) Adenosine deaminase b) HGPRTase c) Glucose 6-phosphatase d) Aldolase B
P₅₀ of adult hemoglobin HbA is a) 50 mmHg b) 20 mmHg c) 5 mmHg d) 26 mmHg
Mechanism of action of methotrexate is inhibition of which of the following enzymes a) Ribonucleotide reductase c) Thymidylate synthase b) PRPP synthetase d) Dihydrofolate reductase
Which of the following proteins is NOT a part of core histone octamer a) H2 b) H1 c) H3 d) H4
Essential fatty acids.
Lipotropic factors.
Discuss the Renal mechanisms involved in regulation of blood pH.
Phase I detoxification reactions.
Na+ -K+ ATPase is the marker enzyme of a) Nucleus b) Plasma Membrane c) Golgi Bodies d) Cytosol
Name the defective enzyme in maple syrup urine disease (Branched Chain Ketonuria) a) Cystathionine b) Phenyl alanine hydroxylase c) Homogentisic acid oxidase d) Oxidative decarboxylase
Which one of the following statement is correct regarding HDL ( High density lipoprotein ) a) It transport dietary lipids from the intestine to various tissues b) It transports endogenous lipids from the liver to the peripheral tissues c) It transports cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver d) It transports the fatty acids released by lipolysis
Calcitriol acts synergistically with the following hormone on bone a) Calcitonin b) Epinephrine c) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) d) Insulin
Pulses are deficient in a) Lysine b) Threonine c) Methionine d) Tryptophan
One of the following vitamins is associated with purine synthesis a) Folate b) Biotin c) Pyridoxine d) Vitamin B12
Who proposed Fluid Mosaic model of Cell Membrane in 1972 a) Darson and Singer b) Frye and Edidin c) Brown and Goldstein d) Singer and Nicholson
Increased gastric HCI secretion is found in a) Zollinger- Ellison syndrome b) Gastric carcinoma c) Pernicious anemia d) Gastritis
During starvation, the brain derives most of its energy needs by utilizing the following a) Fatty acids b) Ketone bodies c) Amino acids d) Glucose
Coenzyme A is derived from which vitamin a) Thiamine b) Pyridoxine c) Cobalamin d) Pantothenate
Which one of the following theories effectively explains the feature of immune response? a) Selection theory b) Germ line theory c) Template theory d) Clonal selection theory
Vanden Bergh reaction is indirect positive in which jaundice a) Hepatocellular b) Hemolytic c) Obstructive d) All of the above
Eicosanoids includes a) Prostaglandins b) Leukotrienes c) Thromboxane’s d) All of the above
The serum enzyme used to evaluate pancreatic function is a) Acid phosphtase b) Amylase c) Alkaline phosphatase d) Lactate dehydrogenase
Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present mainly in the a) Ribosomes b) Endoplasmic reticulum c) Lysosomes d) Inner mitochondrial membrane
Which one of the following trace element deficiency causes loss of taste sensation a) Copper b) Iron c) Zinc d) Selenium
Chronic obstructive airway disease results in a) Respiratory acidosis b) Metabolic acidosis c) Respiratory alkalosis d) Metabolic alkalosis
Following are the tests used to assess the gastric function except a) Pentagastrin stimulation test b) Alcohol test meal c) Urea clearance d) Insulin test meal
Which of the following is cardio protective fatty acid a) Palmitic acid b) Stearic acid c) Propionic acid d) Omega 3 fatty acid
Which of the following enzymes are involved in Biotransformation? a) Transaminases b) Cytochrome P450 enzymes c) Dehydrogenases d) Decarboxylases
The carbohydrate of the blood group substances is a) Sucrose b) Fucose c) Arabinose d) Maltose
Which of the following nonproteins can act as an enzyme. a) DNA b) RNA c) Phospholipid d) Glycolipid
A hormone secreted from anterior pituitary is a) Growth hormone b) Vasopressin c) Oxytocin d) Epinephrine
All of the following porphyrias are inherited as autosomal dominant, except a) Porphyria cutana tarda b) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria c) Protoporphyria d) Acute intermittent porphyria
Suicidal enzyme is a) Lipoxygenase b) Cyclooxygenase c) Thromboxane synthase d) 5- Nucleosidase
Which one of the following enzymes is not a protein, but an RNA molecule a) Amylase b) RNA polymerase c) Urokinase d) Reverse transcriptase
Fluoride inhibits_____and arrests glycolysis. a) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase b) Aconitase c) Enolose d) Succinate DH
Thermogenin is found in a) Thyroid Gland b) Thymus Gland c) Brown Adipose Tissue d) Adrenal Gland
Molecules involved in immune response are a) MHC molecules b) Cytokines c) Chemokines d) All the above
The substance that facilitates the release of oxygen from oxyhemoglobin to the tissues a) H+ ion b) CI-- ions c) 2,3 —Bisphospho glycerate d) Glucose
Cystic fibrosis results from defective ion channels for a) NA+ b) K+ c) Cl- d) H+
An amino acid not found in proteins is a) Homocysteine b) Proline c) Lysine d) Histidine
All the following statements about carnitine are true except a) It can be synthesized in the human body b) It can be synthesized from methionine and lysine c) It is required for transport of short chain fatty acids into mitochondria d) Its deficiency can occur due to haemodialysis
Anticoagulants used in biochemical tests are a) Heparin b) EDTA c) Potassium or Sodium oxalate d) All of the above
Antioxidant enzymes are a) Superoxide dismutase (SOD) b) Catalase c) Glutathione peroxidase d) All the above
Endocrine gland that is associated with the regulation of BMR a) Pituitary b) Thyroid c) Adrenal d) Endocrine part of pancreas
Sphingomyelinase deficiency seen in a) Niemann-Pick disease b) Gaucher’s disease c) Tay-Sach’s disease d) Guillain Barre syndrome
Following are the beneficial effect of Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS), except a) Bactericidal effect b) Reduces blood pressure c) radiotherapy d) Mutations
Lieberman-Burchard reaction is performed to detect a) Cholesterol b) Glycerol c) Fatty acid d) Vitamin D
Insulin /Glucagon ratio is high in the a) Well-fed state b) Overnight fast c) Early fasting state d) All the above
Biotransformation takes place in a) Intestines b) Lungs c) Skin d) Liver
Which one of the following is a cancer suppressor gene a) sis b) ras c) erb-B d) p53
The SDA (Specific Dynamic Action) is the highest for the following nutrient a) Proteins b) Fats c) Vitamins d) Carbohydrates
The most abundant protein in mammals is a) Albumin b) Globulins c) Collagen d) Elastin
The active form of vitamin D is a) 1, 25 —DHCC b) 1,24 — DHCC c) 24,25 — DHCC d) 25- HCC
In the well fed state, all the following pathways are active in the liver, except a) Glycolysis b) Glucose uptake by hepatocytes c) Gluconeogenesis d) Glycogenesis
Serum acid phosphatase level increases in a) Carcinoma of Prostate b) Carcinoma of Lung c) Carcinoma of Liver d) Carcinoma of Oesophagus
The factories of protein biosynthesis is a) Nucleus b) Ribosomes c) Mitochondrion d) Cell sap
Renal rickets is caused by a) Decreased formation of Cholecalciferol b) Increased synthesis of 25- HCC c) Decreased synthesis of calcitriol d) None of the above
Which of the following is not a biologically important peptide. a) Glutathione b) Angiotensin c) Vasopressin d) leukotriene
Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is severely deficient in a) Iron b) Calories c) Proteins d) Essential fatty acids
Earliest Marker of myocardial Infarction is a) Ck1 b) Ck2 c) Ck3 d) Ck4
The predominant buffer system of plasma is the a) Albumin buffer b) Bicarbonate buffer c) Haemoglobin buffer d) Phosphate buffer
Regan isoenzyme is increased in a) Lung cancer b) Osteoporosis c) Paget's disease d) Myocardial infarction
Daily requirement of Iodine for an adult is a) 15-20μg b) 150-200μg c) 800-900μg d) 600-700μg
Which one of the following enzyme acts as biomarker in the diagnosis of prostate cancer a) Amylase b) AST c) Acid phosphatase d) Alkaline phosphatase
Keshan disease occurs due to the deficiency of a) Selenium b) Chromium c) Cobalt d) Manganese
Antidote kits for cyanide poisoning contain a) Amyl nitrate b) Sodium nitrite c) BAL d) Both A and B
The Peptide that protects RBC membrane is a) Oxytocin b) Glutathione c) Vasopressin d) Angiotensin
The principal cation in intracellular fluid is a) Sodium b) Potassium c) Calcium d) Magnesium
A 50-year-old obese male came to causality with complaints of severe chest pain and breathlessness. He is a known diabetic since 6 years on irregular treatment. His ECG revealed an ST segment elevation. His lipid profile showed the following. T. cholesterol- 320 mg%, LDL cholesterol- 180 mg%, HDL cholesterol- 24 mg%, Triglycerides- 250 mg% a) What is the probable diagnosis. b) Explain in detail the steps involved in synthesis of cholesterol in our body. c) Causes for hypercholesterolemia. d) Role of statins to reduce the cholesterol.
A 16-year old boy who was given blood transfusion recently had presented with chills and rigors of 2 days duration. Laboratory investigations revealed the following findings: Serum total bilirubin: 4.8 mg/dL, Serum conjugated bilirubin : 0.2 mg/dL, Urine Bilirubin: Negative, Van den Bergh reaction is indirect positive. a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) How do you relate the history and laboratory findings to confirm your diagnosis? (Use flow chart to explain if required) c) Describe normal bilirubin metabolism. d) Name the test performed to identify presence of bile pigments in the urine.
A 60-year-old male presented with acute chest pain of ½ hour duration. His past history reveals as a known diabetic; known hypertensive, known smoker and known alcoholic. The biochemical analysis are as follows: Blood glucose = 380 mg%, Serum cholesterol = 300 mg% AST = 60 U/L, ALT= 15 U/L, CPK & LDH were elevated. a) Give your provisional diagnosis and meaning of it. b) Explain in detail about cardiac markers with graph patterns. c) What are the other markers which can be estimated in this case. d) Write the normal values of all of the above lab tests.
A 6-year-old was brought to OPD with a history of slow growth and pain in bones. On examination revealed bow leg deformities; frontal bossing; pigeon chest deformities. Laboratory investigations shows:- Serum Calcium = 7.9mg%, Serum Phosphorus = 2.4mg%, Serum alkaline phosphatase = 690U/L. a) What is the likely diagnosis? b) Write in detail about dietary sources, daily requirement, biochemical functions, regulation of blood calcium homoeostasis and diseased conditions of the deficient mineral element. c) Write the normal levels of the above lab tests in serum.
Discuss the metabolism of Glycine. Give an account on biological important compounds synthesised from Glycine. Add a note on primary Hyperoxaluria.
A 6-month-old infant began to vomit occasionally and ceased to gain weight at 9 months of the age. He was readmitted to the hospital. After one week he became drowsy had fever, pulse was elevated and there was hepatomegaly. EEG was done and was grossly abnormal. Blood ammonia was elevated and urine contained high amount of glutamine and uracil a) What is probable diagnosis? b) What is pathogenic mechanism involved? c) Describe how ammonia of aminoacid is metabolised? d) What is the normal plasma concentration of ammonia?
a) What is Gluconeogenesis. b) Under what conditions is the process of gluconeogenesis activated in the body. c) What are the substances for gluconeogenesis. d) Mention the key enzymes and how is alanine converted to glucose. e) Justify the statement: Gluconeogenesis is not a simple reversal of glycolysis.
Explain the structure of DNA under the following headings: a) Using a neat a labelled diagram explain the structural organization of DNA. b) Name the histone proteins. c) Compare and contrast the differences between DNA and RNA. d) Name the different forms of DNA.
12.Write in detail on the metabolism of Iron- the essential trace element in the following headings a) What are the other essential trace elements, name them? b) Describe the dietary source, daily requirement, factors affecting ‘Fe’ absorption, transport, storage, biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of the mineral. c) Specially explain the mucosal block theory of Iron absorption to support the statement – Iron is a one-way element.
a) Classify the Enzymes? Giving one example for each. b) What are factors influencing enzyme activity? c) What are the different types of enzyme inhibition. Explain with suitable examples. d) Clinical importance of inhibition.
A 45-year-old obese lady presented to the causality with complaints of acute right upper abdominal pain, mild fever, loss of appetite and generalized itching. On further questioning, she gave history of frothy, clay coloured stool and high coloured urine. a) What is the probable diagnosis? b) Mention the laboratory tests you advise to confirm the diagnosis? c) Describe the normal bilirubin metabolism. d) How do you relate the high coloured urine, itching and clay-coloured stools with altered metabolic pathway of bilirubin in this condition.
What are the types of DNA repair and name the diseases caused by various mutations.
What are the differences between competitive and noncompetitive inhibition. Give two examples for competitive inhibition.
Name the different levels of the structural organization or proteins. Discuss the secondary structure of proteins and add a note on the bonds responsible for stabilizing the secondary structure.
Write about the structural and functional organization of electron transport chain. Add a note on inhibitors of it.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and its clinical application. What is RTPCR?
Describe the Oncogenes and their role in Cancer with examples.
Structural organization levels of Proteins.
How the Physician becomes a part of Health Care System.
Write the compounds derived from glycine and their importance
Write about Ketone body’s synthesis and discuss the importance.
What are the sources of Dietary fibre? Discuss the importance of it in Nutrition.
Mention the different types of tumour markers. Describe the significance of any three tumour markers.
Write in detail on the Protein-Energy malnutrition disorders.
Explain how learning influence the Physician Growth.
Describe the role of a physician in health care system
Schematic representation of Electron transport chain. Add a note on Uncouplers.
Salvage pathway of Purine synthesis and add a note on Lesch Nyhan syndrome.
Describe the principle and applications of electrophoresis.
What are tumor markers? Discuss the clinical utility of any three tumor markers.
Discuss in detail on the regulation of blood glucose level (Homeostasis of blood glucose level) and define hypoglycaemia. Write in detail on various causes of Hypoglycaemia.
Describe how physician is important in health care system?
What are your perspectives on lifelong learning by Physician?
Describe the sources, daily requirements and functions of Vitamin D.
Describe in detail the glomerular function tests. Add a note on the formulae available for calculating estimated glomerular function rate (eGFR).
Define phospholipids. State their function and importance.
Define BMR. What are the factors regulating BMR.
Discuss the structure of normal Haemoglobin. Add a note on haemoglobin derivatives.
Define detoxification. Write in detail on the phases of detoxification and mention examples clinically related where ever necessary.
Describe transport mechanisms across the cell membrane.
Describe the structure of normal haemoglobin molecule. Add a note on Thalassemia.
Write in detail on the biochemical function, RDA, and deficiency manifestations of Vitamin A.
Describe in detail on the metabolism of Galactose and add a note on disorders of it correlating clinically.
What is Transamination and its significance? List two Transaminases.
Degradation of Haemoglobin.
Discuss in detail on the inhibitors of ETC and oxidative phosphorylation and a note on inherited disorders of oxidative phosphorylation.
Explain with diagram the structure of IgG molecule and indicate its binding sites and function of IgG.
Discuss in detail on the transport mechanisms/process across the cell membranes.
Outline the Denovo synthesis of fatty acid. What are the advantages of having a multifunctional enzyme complex?
Structure and functions of t-RNA.
Explain the commitment to lifelong learning is related to physician growth.
Name the plasma proteins. Write the functions of serum albumin.
What is the principle, procedure and clinical application of radio immunoassay.
Glycated Haemoglobin & its clinical interpretation.
DNA polymerase.
Synthetic Nucleotides.
What is an allosteric enzyme. And give one example of reaction catalysed by an allosteric enzyme.
Operon Concept.
Mention biological active form of folic acid. How is it involved in one carbon metabolism?
Fluid mosaic model of membrane.
Autoimmunity.
Explain the concept: “HMP pathway is significant in preservation of erythrocyte membrane integrity”.
Name the thyroid function tests. Write the reference range for T4 and TSH.
Polysaccharides.
Benedict’s test.
What is the normal anion gap? State its importance.
Vitamin K cycle – biochemical function of vitamin K.
Hetero polysaccharides.
Calculate the anion gap using the following data: serum Sodium: 145 mmol/L, Serum potassium; 4.0mmol/L, Serum bicarbonate – 24mmol/L, serum chloride: 104 mmol/L.
Mention the sources and functions of Iron.
Glycogen storage disorders.
Write on the classification and characteristics of Hyper and Hypolipoproteinaemia’s.
Point mutation.
Mention the dietary importance of Proteins.
Alkali reserve.
Wernicke – Korsakoff syndrome.
Porphyria Cutanea tarda.
Explain Chloride shift.
Urea cycle.
Formation and utilization of ketone bodies.
Dietary fibre.
Genetic code
Immunoglobulins.
Protein energy malnutrition
Significance of HMP shunt pathway
Role of kidney in Acid-Base balance
Formation and fate of Bilirubin
Substrate level Phosphorylation
Classification of enzymes with example
Structure and functions of immunoglobulins.
Digestion and absorption of carbohydrates
Gout
Define basal metabolic rate (BMR). Mention the factors affecting BMR.
Anti oxidants.
Biochemical functions, recommended dietary allowance and the deficiency of thiamine
Glucose tolerance tests
Types and applications of PCR
Active transport with example
Biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of Ascorbic acid.
Dietary Fibers
Purine catabolism and its disorder
Inborn errors associated with phenyl alanine and Tyrosine metabolism.
Liver Function tests.
Name the plasma buffers and role of buffers in maintaining the acid base balance.
An 8-year-old girl presented with difficulty in vision during night time. Vitamin A deficiency was suspected following examination. a) Write the provitamin form of Vitamin A b) Explain Wald’s visual cycle
Mutation
Glycogen synthesis and its regulation
A 48-year-old man diagnosed with myocardial infarction (MI) had an altered lipid profile with elevated total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol. a) Write the biological reference interval of LDL cholesterol. b) Explain the formation of LDL cholesterol. c) Reason out why LDL cholesterol is atherogenic.
Dietary sources, coenzyme forms and biochemical functions of folic acid. Creatinine clearance test
A 44 year old male presented with chest pain. Family history shows that his father died of a heart attack at the age of 46 years, and his elder brother also had a heart attack at the same age. The patient reports that he gets chest pain occasionally with ambulation and is not able to climb stairs without significant chest pain and shortness of breath. His Serum cholesterol was 440.0 mg/dl. a) What is the probable cause for hyperlipidemia in this case? b) Name two hyperlipoproteinemias along with their biochemical defect. c) Mention one lipid lowering drug along with its mechanism of action
a) A 3 year old child was brought to paediatric OPD with complaints of fair skin, white hair and ocular manifestations suggesting the case to be albinism a) What is the enzyme defect in albinism? b) Write the pathway of synthesis of melanin c) List two other biologically important compounds formed from tyrosine
A 47-year-old female came with the complaints of fatigue and bilateral tingling & numbness in her extremities. The symptoms were progressive and was gradually getting worse. Dietary history revealed she was on vegan diet. Neurological examination revealed numbness in all extremities with decreased vibration senses. Provisional diagnosis of Vitamin B12 deficiency was made. a) Mention the RDA and dietary sources of Vitamin B12. b) Enumerate the biochemical functions of Vitamin B12. c) Explain ‘folate trap’.
a) A 15 year old tribal boy was admitted with complaints of fatigue, recurrent fever and pain in arms and legs. His peripheral blood smear shows sickled erythrocytes and a hemoglobin concentration of 6 gm%. a) Name the molecular defect in this disorder. b) Explain the mechanism of sickling. c) What is the cause of anemia in this condition?
What are Isoenzymes? Briefly explain Isoenzymes with examples.
A 40 year old female with history of gall stones presented with acute pain abdomen, yellowish discoloration of sclera and passing clay coloured stools. Following investigations, a diagnosis of obstructive jaundice was made. a) Describe van Den Berg test and its findings in this condition. b) Name the enzyme that is elevated in this condition. c) Explain the biochemical reason for clay coloured stools in this case.
Salvage pathway of purines
An elderly male visited orthopedic department with history of chronic pain in the knee joint. After examination, he was prescribed medication containing some of the heteropolysaccharides and advised to follow up after two months. a) What are heteropolysaccharides? b) Name the heteropolysaccharides that are present in cartilage and synovial fluid and mention their importance. c) Write the composition and biological importance of Heparin.
A 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hemorrhoids and underwent operation in relation to it. He had several bleeding episodes in the past and was found to have microcytic hypochromic anaemia. (a) Which mineral deficiency is associated with anaemia in the above case? (b) Mention two good dietary sources of above mineral. (c) Explain the process of absorption, transport and storage of the above mineral.
Role of protein buffers in acid-based balance
Classify enzymes with examples.
A pregnant lady who visited primary health care centre for antenatal check-up with complaints of tiredness and easy fatigability was found to be anemic. Peripheral smear showed microcytic hypochromic anemia. a. Name the mineral associated with the above disorder b. Write the dietary sources and RDA of the above mineral c. Write the biochemical functions of above mineral.
A 45 year old man presented with severe back pain and weakness. He had lost 7 kgs in last three months. He complained of loss of appetite and fatigue. X-ray showed punched out lesions. Urine is positive for Bence Jones protein a) Name the disorder in above case b) What are Bence Jones proteins? c) What is the electrophoretic pattern that is observed in this case?
Transamination reactions and their importance
A 20-year-old pregnant woman presented with history of fatigue. Her peripheral blood smear showed microcytic hypochromic anemia. a) Which mineral deficiency leads to this type of anemia? b) Explain the absorption, transport and storage of this mineral.
Specialized products from tyrosine
A 70-year-old man suffered an attack of pneumonia. He found it difficult to breathe and was losing consciousness. His Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) report was as follows: pH=7.1, pCO2 = 52 mmHg, Plasma Bicarbonate (HCO3-) = 25 meq/L. a) Interpret the ABG report. b) Write the compensatory mechanism in the above acid-base disorder.
Dietary fibre. Hypokalemia
A 25 year old female during her second pregnancy had a glucose tolerance test and her results are as follows. Fasting glucose level: 125 mg/dL, first hour glucose level: 210 mg/dL, and second hour glucose level: 170 mg/dL. a) Interpret the above laboratory findings. b) Name the types of diabetes mellitus. c) Mention the biochemical tests used to monitor diabetes and its complications.
A 15 year old girl with history of vaso-occlusive pain crisis came to OPD with history of influenza attack. She was taking monthly blood transfusion from the age of 5 years due to underlying sickle cell disease. a) Explain the molecular defect in sickle cell disease and biochemical basis of sickling b) Mention the laboratory investigations in sickle cell disease
Homopolysaccharides.
A 9-year-old girl presented to Pediatric OPD with frequent experience of muscle pain and cramps. She also complained of weakness in hands and feet. Diet history revealed she was aversion towards milk or milk products. On examination, Trosseau’s and Chovstek’s signs were positive. a) Name the mineral associated with above condition. b) List the hormones involved in regulating the above mineral and explain how it is regulated. c) Mention the reference range of above mineral in serum.
d) An intravenous drug user was found to have developed jaundice. Laboratory investigations revealed hepatitis B infection. His total serum bilirubin was 10.2 mg/dl. a) What type of jaundice is seen in above case? b) Explain van den Bergh test and write its interpretation in the above case.
Describe the secondary structures of Proteins with examples.
Renal regulation of blood pH.
A 50 year old female presented with hoarseness of voice, dryness of skin and excess weight gain. The case was suspected to be hypothyroidism. a) List the tests for assessment of thyroid function. b) Write laboratory findings in a case of hypothyroidism. c) Differentiate between primary and secondary hypothyroidism.
List the body fluid buffers and discuss their role in regulation of blood pH.
Metabolic functions of glycine
A mother and 12 year her old son was brought with history of fever and headache. All investigations including Liver Function Test (LFT) were within normal limits for both and symptomatic treatment was advised. However, the mother was worried about higher Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) observed in the LFT of her son compared to her. The physician explained the physiological reason for the raised enzyme in the child. a) Mention the physiological reason for higher ALP in the above child. b) Name two pathological conditions for increase in serum ALP. c) Explain the role of isoenzymes in the diagnosis Myocardial infarction.
Biological value of proteins
A 60 year old obese man, who underwent master health check-up was found to have mild hepatomegaly with fatty liver changes. a. What is fatty liver? b. Enumerate the causes of fatty liver c. Explain the role of lipotropic factors in preventing fatty liver.
A known case of diabetes and hypertension on irregular treatment presented with swelling of both lower limbs and puffiness of face. He was diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) a) Mention two biochemical parameters altered in CKD. b) Explain the test to assess glomerular function of Kidney.
Define Basal Metabolic Rate. Explain the factors affecting BMR.
Describe the role of dietary fibre in nutrition.
Salvage pathway of purine nucleotides with the clinical disorders associated with it.
Mention biological reference interval for serum calcium. Describe any four functions of calcium.
Define Basal metabolic rate. Discuss the factors affecting it.
b) Define clearance. Explain creatinine clearance test. Give reason why creatinine clearance is preferred over urea clearance
Diagnostic importance of Liver enzymes
Glucose tolerance test
“Gluconeogenesis is not a simple reversal of glycolysis” – Justify it by stating the reactions catalysed by key enzymes of gluconeogenesis.
Describe the steps in this polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Name the type of PCR used in the diagnosis of Covid 19.
How is Urea synthesized in the body?
Define proto-oncogene and oncogene. Explain the activation of oncogene.
Hormonal regulation of blood glucose
Write two biological functions and a disorder associated with the metabolism of a) Iron b) Copper.
What are dietary fibres? Give four examples of dietary fibres. Mention four advantages of consuming dietary fibres.
Name the ketone bodies. Describe the formation and utilization of ketone bodies.
Mention blood buffers. Explain the role of Lungs in acid base balance.
What is Porphyria? Write the types of porphyria. Mention enzyme defect and clinical features of acute intermittent porphyria
What is clearance test? Which is the ideal substance used for determination of Glomerular Filtration Rate and why? Explain.
Homo polysaccharide.
State chemiosmotic theory and illustrate the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
Outline the degradation of heme and excretion of products of degradation
Competitive inhibition.
Define Isoenzymes. Mention the Isoenzymes of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) and write their significance.
Classify phospholipids. Write their functions.
List the immunoglobulins. Write the functions of these immunoglobulins
Isoenzymes
Name the ketone bodies. Write the pathway for ketogenesis. Mention two clinical conditions associated with ketonuria.
Name any three products derived from tyrosine. Describe the metabolic pathway leading to the formation of any one of the product from tyrosine.
What is Oxidative Phosphorylation? Explain Chemiosmotic theory.
Recombinant DNA Technology.
Compare and contrast between replication in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Lac operon concept
Describe the electron transport chain.
What is carnitine? Explain its role in transport of fatty acids for oxidation process.
Glomerular function test
What are the biochemical derangements in diabetes mellitus? Add a note on glycated haemoglobin.
Biomarkers for early detection of acute myocardial infarction.
List five functions of phosphorous.
How are free radicals generated? Describe the free radical scavenging systems
Define metabolic acidosis. Enumerate the causes for metabolic acidosis. Write the compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis.
Define Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR). Enumerate the factors affecting BMR.
Describe electron transport chain. Mention two inhibitors of electron transport chain.
Explain the steps in recombinant DNA technology
Draw the structure of immunoglobulin G and label it. Enumerate its functions.
Enumerate kidney function tests. Explain tubular function test.
Name the carbohydrate shunt pathways in RBC. Explain their biological importance.
Compare and contrast between passive and active transport with two examples.
Describe steps in Ketogenesis. Mention two conditions associated with Ketonuria.
List the hormones which function with cAMP as second messenger. Describe the mechanism of action of steroid hormones
Describe the role of any five plasma enzymes in the diagnosis of disease.
Explain the metabolic adaptations in well-fed state.
List five subcellular organelles and enumerate their functions.
Name the antioxidant enzymes and explain their mechanism of action
Mention the types of diabetes mellitus. Describe the metabolic changes in diabetes mellitus. List two microvascular complications associated with diabetes mellitus.
What is lipid peroxidation? Explain the role of antioxidants in scavenging reactive oxygen species.
Describe DNA repair mechanism with suitable examples.
Explain the regulation of blood glucose in starvation.
Explain competitive inhibition with two examples.
What is chemiosmotic hypothesis? Explain how proton gradient is utilized for ATP synthesis.
Enumerate the reactions of purine salvage pathway. Name the disorders that is associated with this pathway and write its clinical features
Explain niacin under the following headings: a) Dietary sources b) Co-enzyme forms c) Deficiency manifestation
Explain competitive inhibition of enzymes with two examples.
Write the causes and laboratory findings in Iron deficiency anemia.
List five plasma proteins and mention their functions
Mention the dietary sources, RDA and biochemical functions of Vitamin E.
Write the steps in the formation of creatine and glutathione from glycine.
What is gout? Write the causes and clinical features of gout.
What is the normal pH of blood? Name the buffer systems that maintain blood pH. What is the effect of pH on enzyme activity?
Explain the steps in the synthesis and breakdown of ketone bodies.
Describe competitive inhibition of enzymes with two examples.
What are restriction endonucleases? Give two examples. Explain their role in Recombinant DNA technology
Explain the metabolic changes in starvation.
Explain the functions of peroxisomes and describe their role in fatty acid oxidation.
Define and Classify carbohydrates with examples.
Explain primary and secondary structural organisation of proteins with examples
Define glycogenolysis. Write the reactions of glycogenolysis. State two glycogen storage disorders mentioning the enzyme defect.
Describe the glomerular function tests.
Enumerate the functional classification of proteins with examples.
Explain how calcium is regulated in the body. Mention its deficiency disorders.
Define isoenzymes. Name two enzymes and their isoenzyme forms with their significance.
What is polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? Explain the steps in PCR. Write two applications of PCR
Write in detail about heme synthesis and its regulation. Add a note on Acute intermittent porphyria
Explain the process of steps of β oxidation of fatty acids and energetics.
A 10-year-old boy was admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of malaria. He was started on primaquine and antipyretics. Within one day he was found to have developed hemolytic anemia. a) Name the pathway affected in the above case and write the enzyme defect in the pathway. b) Name the compounds formed in this pathway and write their importance. c) What is the relation between primaquine and hemolytic anemia?
What is normal pH of blood? Discuss in detail role of kidneys in pH regulation. Add a note on metabolic acidosis.
Name the aromatic amino acids. Discuss how phenyl alanine is catabolised in the body. Add a note on phenyl Ketonuria.
A medical student who had an exam on the next day did not eat anything the previous night. Next day morning, he had severe headache and giddiness before exam. His fasting plasma glucose was 48 mg/dl. a) Interpret the plasma glucose value b) Name the metabolic pathways which maintain blood glucose in fasting state c) Explain the metabolic pathway that synthesise glucose from pyruvate
Describe the process of transcription and add a note on post transcriptional modification.
A 5 year old child was brought to the hospital with complaints of slow growth and pain in bones. On examination, he was anaemic, had frontal bossing, bowing of legs and swelling of costochondral junction. Following are his laboratory findings: Serum calcium: 8.6 mg/ dL, Serum phosphorous: 2.6 mg/dL, and Serum alkaline phosphatase: 700 U/L. a) Mention the vitamin deficiency in this child. b) Describe the Sources, Formation, Biochemical functions and recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of above vitamin.
A 45 year old male presented with excruciating pain in the great toe. He was obese and had long history of consumption of alcohol. On investigation his serum uric acid level was 12.1 mg/dl a) Interpret the serum uric acid level in the above case b) Explain the formation of uric acid c) Write four causes of hyperuricemia d) Explain the biochemical basis of giving allopurinol in treatment of Gout
Describe the process of Eukaryotic DNA replication. Enumerate different types of DNA repair mechanisms
Write the steps of β-oxidation of palmitic acid. Add a note on energetics.
Give the normal blood glucose levels in fasting and post prandial state. Explain the role of hormones in plasma glucose regulation
A 60-year-old female presents to the emergency department with acute onset shortness of breath. Symptoms began approximately 2 days before and had progressively worsened with no associated, aggravating, or relieving factors. Past history revealed she had similar symptoms approximately 1 year ago with an acute, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation requiring hospitalization. Her arterial blood gas analysis report revealed the following: pH 7.25, PCO2 68, PO2 48 and HCO3- 24 mmol/L. a) What is the acid-base disturbance of the above patient? b) Mention the normal pH of blood. c) Explain the role respiratory mechanism in maintenance of acid-base balance. d) List two other clinical conditions causing such acid-base disturbance.
A 10 year old boy was brought to the hospital for self-multilating behaviour and delayed development. His serum uric acid level was 15 mg/dl. A provisional diagnosis of Lesch Nyhan syndrome was made. a) Write the biological reference interval for serum uric acid level. b) Name the enzyme defect and the pathway affected in the above disorder. c) Which tissues are dependent on this pathway? d) Enumerate the other causes of hyperuricemia e) What is the role of allopurinol in the treatment of hyperuricemia?
Define Glycogenesis and Glycogenolysis. Write the reactions of Glycogenesis and Glycogenolysis in the Liver.
A fair 5 year old child was brought to the hospital by his parents, who complained of delayed milestones in the child. Investigations revealed a high phenylalanine content in the blood and a diagnosis of phenylketonuria was made. a) Name the enzyme defect in the above disorder. b) Explain the pathway for catabolism of phenylalanine. c) Name the compound responsible for the mousy odour in the above condition. d) List the biochemical investigations in phenylketonuria
Define transcription. Explain in detail the transcription in Prokaryotes. Add a note on a note on post transcriptional modifications.
Explain in detail the beta oxidation of palmitic acid. Add a note on its energetics.
A 12-year-old, with history of type 1 diabetes was brought to the emergency in a semi- comatose state with rapid breathing and fruity odour of breath. Investigations showed Random blood glucose of 450 mg/dL and positive test for the presence of ketone bodies. Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) analysis suggested features of metabolic acidosis. a) Write the reference interval for Fasting and Random plasma glucose. b) Mention the ketone bodies that answered the test in this case. c) Explain the synthesis and utilization of ketone bodies.
A 40-year-old navy officer contacted his physician for development of spongy and bleeding gums. He also had loosening of teeth, pain in the joints and complained of poor wound healing. History revealed that he was in submarine tour for 40 days and was only on staple diet. (a) Name the vitamin deficiency associated with symptoms in the above case. (b) Name the disorder caused due to deficiency of above vitamin. (c) List two dietary sources of above vitamin. (d) Mention any four biochemical functions of above vitamin. (e) Explain the biochemical basis of spongy and bleeding gums.
What is the normal serum total cholesterol level? Name four biologically important compounds formed from cholesterol. Describe the transport of cholesterol from liver to peripheral tissues and back.
Define Gluconeogenesis. Name the substrates required for Gluconeogenesis and trace the pathway for formation of glucose from lactate. Add a note on regulation of Gluconeogenesis.
Describe the phases of activation, initiation, elongation and termination of biosynthesis of proteins.
A 8 year old boy was brought to orthopaedic OPD with a complaint of abnormal gait for the past 3 months. Clinical examination showed tenderness over Tibia. Laboratory investigation data revealed a. Name the vitamin D deficiency disorder in the above case b. What is the RDA of vitamin D? c. Explain the formation of calcitriol d. Describe the role of calcitriol in calcium homeostasis
A child of two years presented with convulsions. He was taking normal feeds. But his mother observed mousy odour of child’s urine. Urine ferric chloride test was positive. Plasma phenylalanine was found to be elevated. He was diagnosed to have phenyl Ketonuria a) What is the biochemical defect in phenyl Ketonuria? b) Describe the catabolism of phenylalanine c) Give the biochemical reasons for mousy odour in this case
Describe the source, RDA, biochemical functions, synthesis and deficiency manifestation of Vitamin D.
Describe cholesterol biosynthesis up to the formation of mevalonate. Explain the regulation of cholesterol biosynthesis. Mention two causes of Hypercholesterolemia.
Mention the active form of Vitamin D. Describe the synthesis, biochemical functions and RDA of Vitamin D.
Explain the factors affecting enzyme activity. Mention two therapeutic importance of enzymes.
Explain the process of DNA replication in prokaryotes. Mention two inhibitors of DNA replication. List two differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic replication.
List the types of enzyme inhibition. Differentiate competitive and noncompetitive inhibition with examples. Describe allosteric regulation of enzyme.
Describe the steps of DNA replication in prokaryotes. List the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication.
Explain the process of recombinant DNA technology and list four applications in the field of medicine.
Write the sources, coenzyme form, biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of Thiamine.
Explain the hormonal regulation of glucose homeostasis. Mention the biological reference interval of fasting and post-prandial plasma glucose levels. Substantiate the role of glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) in monitoring blood glucose levels.
Explain glycogenolysis. Write the difference between Liver and Muscle glycogenolysis. Mention the role of insulin and glucagon in glycogenolysis.
Describe protein biosynthesis in prokaryotes. Mention three inhibitors of protein biosynthesis
Lactose intolerance.
Oncogenes
Active transport.
Oncogene.
Functions of albumin.
Free radicals
Creatinine clearance
Fatty liver
Orotic aciduria
Phase I detoxification
Basal metabolic rate
Okazaki fragments
Primary structure of proteins.
Scurvy
Tumour markers
Fluorosis
Name three mucopolysaccharides and write their functions.
Bile salts and bile pigments in the diagnosis of various types jaundice
Classification of proteins based on function.
Biochemical function and markers of Mitochondria
Interpretation of Van den Bergh test
Enzymes of therapeutic importance.
Wilsons disease Urobilinogen
Ribosomal RNA
Explain the biochemical defect and clinical manifestations of a) Niemann-Pick disease b) Refsum’s disease c) Alkaptonuria
Write any three tumour markers along with its diagnostic significance.
Specificity of enzymes
Specific Dynamic Action (SDA)
HDL metabolism.
Name four synthetic analogues of nucleotides. Mention their therapeutic importance.
Name any two glycogen disorders and the associated enzyme defect.
Anapleurotic reactions
Name the phase I detoxification reactions.
What are free radicals? Name any four antioxidants in the body.
Causes of metabolic acidosis.
Structure and functions of mitochondria
Name the inhibitors of replication and their clinical importance.
Role of enzymes as tumor markers (any three)
Specialized products formed from tryptophan
Vitamin K Antioxidants
Markers of carcinoma prostate
Messenger RNA
Name three tumour markers and their clinical significance.
Clearance tests
Name the selenium containing enzyme. What is its clinical importance?
Structure of collagen
Write the composition and functions of collagen.
Clearance test.
What is fatty liver? Mention any two lipotropic factors.
Mention the mechanisms involved in maintenance of blood pH.
What is gene therapy? Name two diseases in which gene therapy is used
Name any three tumor markers and write their importance
Write the functions of: a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum b) Mitochondria c) Lysosomes
Name three tumor markers and mention their significance.
Write the reference values of i) Serum calcium ii) Serum uric acid iii) Serum total protein
Draw and label the cell cycle.
What are Dietary fibres? Why is it important to include them in the diet?
Write the amino acid composition of collagen. Mention two clinical disorders associated with defective collagen.
t-RNA
Mention three functions of cholesterol.
List out the assays done for evaluation of thyroid function. Enumerate the laboratory findings in hyperthyroidism
What you mean by abnormal hemoglobins. Explain briefly. Give examples.
Enumerate the biomarkers used in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which biomarker is considered specific for MI and why?
What is hyponatremia? List two causes of hyponatremia.
List the hormones involved in homeostasis of calcium.
Name three preanalytical errors in a clinical laboratory
State the biochemical defect and clinical features associated with a) Osteogenesis imperfecta b) Ehler Danlos Syndrome
What is the enzyme defect in maple syrup urine disease? What are its characteristic features?
What are histones? Enumerate their functions.
Muscle glycogen does not contribute to blood glucose - Justify. Mention two glycogen storage disorders
Give three examples of glycosaminoglycans with their functions.
What is HbA1C (Glycated Hemoglobin)? Mention its significance.
What is detoxification? Give two examples of detoxification by oxidative reaction
Name three functions of the vitamin whose deficiency causes scurvy.
Component of oral rehydration solution (ORS) has sodium chloride and glucose. What is purpose of adding glucose in ORS?
What is hypernatremia? Mention two clinical conditions associated with hypernatremia.
Mention different types of RNA and write their functions
Define oligosaccharide. Give two examples of oligosaccharide. Mention their biomedical importance.
List the adrenal function tests. Mention one disorder associated with abnormal adrenal function.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of immunoglobulin.
Name the essential fatty acids. Mention three biological importance poly unsaturated fatty acids
What are phospholipids? Mention the biochemical importance of lecithin and cephalin.
What are therapeutic enzymes? Give two examples with their therapeutic application.
What are reference intervals? List out two pre analytical variables
Mention any three site specific inhibitors of electron transport chain.
Mention the cause and clinical features of scurvy.
What is the defective enzyme in homocystinuria? What are the characteristic features of homocystinuria?
What are trans-fatty acids and state their adverse effect?
Enlist three biologically important peptides and write their functions.
What are restriction endonucleases? Mention their importance.
What is glycated haemoglobin? Mention its diagnostic applications
Write the components of Complex I of electron transport chain and mention one inhibitor of this complex.
What is facilitated diffusion? Give one example.
What is Southern Blotting Technique? Mention its applications
Name three phospholipids and write their biological importance.
Name the enzyme defect in von Gierke’s disease. Write the biochemical alterations in von Gierke’s disease.
Enumerate three coenzymes with their functions.
Mention the types of mutation. Give reason why some mutations are silent
What are apolipoproteins? List two apolipoproteins and mention their significance.
What are xenobiotics? Write two detoxification reactions by conjugation.
Give biological reference interval of serum urea, serum albumin and serum creatinine.
Write the function of the following lipases a) Lipoprotein lipase b) Hormone sensitive lipase c) Phospholipase A2
Compare and contrast between kwashiorkor and marasmus.
What is the role of Anti Diuretic Hormone (ADH) in water balance? Name the disorder associated with its deficiency.
Name three nucleotides and write their biological importance
Mention two causes of hypokalemia. Write biological reference interval for serum potassium.
What is the cause of pellagra? Write the clinical manifestations of pellagra.
HDL – cholesterol is called good cholesterol - justify.
What is Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)? Give the clinical applications of RFLP
Mention one inhibitors for the following complexes in electron transport chain: a) Complex I b) Complex II c) Complex IV
Name three biologically important nucleotides and mention their importance.
Enumerate post-transcriptional modifications and write their significance.
Write two mechanisms of transport of large molecules across membrane. What is Hartnup’s disease?
Name serum electrolytes. Mention two causes associated with hypokalemia.
What is Alkali reserve? List two causes of metabolic acidosis.
What is innate and adaptive immune response?
Define Km. Explain its importance with an example.
A diabetic patient was advised not to take polished rice but to take brown rice. Explain the reasons for the same.
List the biologically important Products obtained from cholesterol.
Enumerate the specialized products derived from Tryptophan. Mention their biological functions
List two enzymes in which copper is a cofactor. Write the clinical features of the disorder associated with copper excess.
Mention three advantages of automation in clinical biochemistry laboratory.
Mention any three antioxidants and state their mechanism of action.
What is hyponatremia? Write two causes for the same.
Write the features of bicarbonate buffer system.
What is Marasmus? List two features of Marasmus.
Give three examples of tumour markers and write their clinical importance
Mention the role of carnitine in β-oxidation.
Mention three homopolysccharides of glucose and write their biological importance.
What is Metabolic acidosis? Mention two causes for it.
What are oncosupressor genes? Mention their clinical significance with two examples
Define balanced diet. Write the composition of balanced diet.
Enlist three post-translational modifications with suitable examples.
Write the structure and function of t-RNA
What is anion Gap? Write the reference range for normal anion gap.
Write three features to differentiate type I and type II diabetes mellitus.
Define Km. What is the significance of Km?
Write the serum and urinary biochemical findings in hemolytic jaundice
Write biological importance of selenium.
Write the biochemical defect in Ehler Danlos Syndrome and Osteogenesis imperfecta.
Mention three proteins present in extracellular matrix.
Explain with three examples the process of detoxification by conjugation mechanism
Define hyponatremia. Mention two clinical conditions associated with hyponatremia.
Mention normal albumin/globulin (A/G) ratio. Write two conditions where A/G ratio is altered.
Give three examples for detoxification by conjugation mechanism.
Write the features of competitive inhibition of enzymes.
Mention the role of oxidized LDL in atherogenesis.
What are oncogenes? What are the factors that activate oncogenes?
Define active transport. Give two examples for active transport.
Write the biochemical cause of respiratory distress syndrome in premature babies.
Mention the key enzymes catalyzing irreversible steps in gluconeogenesis.
Enumerate the tests to assess thyroid function. Write the laboratory findings in case of hyperthyroidism
Name the precursor molecule in the synthesis of prostaglandins. Mention four clinical significance of prostaglandins.
What is restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP). Mention two clinical applications of RFLP.
Name thee pre-analytical variables that affect the biochemical laboratory results.
Write three differences between Marasmus and Kwashiorkar.
Write the clinical features associated with skeletal and dental fluorosis.
Troponins are more specific cardiac marker compared to creatine kinase – Justify.
What are essential amino acids? Give examples
The vitamin that acts as a coenzyme for transketolase activity is A. Pyridoxine B. Thiamine C. Biotin D. Folate
Hexokinase belongs to which class of enzymes? A. Oxidoreductase B. Transferase C. Hydrolase D. Lyase
The end product of glycolysis in erythrocytes is A. NADPH B. Lactate C. Pyruvate D. Carbon dioxide
The enzyme defective in porphyria cutanea tarda is A. PBG deaminase B. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase C. Heme synthase D. Coproporphyrinogen III oxidase
Which vitamin availability reduces the requirement of selenium? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K
All the following are glucogenic amino acids EXCEPT A. Valine B. Phenylalanine C. Glycine D. Leucine
Hypoalbuminemia is seen in all the following conditions EXCEPT A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Kwashiorkor D. Dehydration
The enzyme used in diagnosis of prostate cancer is A. Acid phosphatase B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Lactate dehydrogenase D. Alanine transaminase
Which one of the following is rich in saturated fatty acid? A. Coconut oil B. Groundnut oil C. Corn oil D. Sesame oil
Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to defect in: A. Actin B. Collagen C. Keratin D. Crystallin
Heme is converted to bilirubin in A. Mitochondria B. Microsomes C. Golgi apparatus D. Plasma membrane
Enzymes which are synthesized in an inactive form are called A. Apoenzyme B. Proenzymes C. Coenzyme D. Isozyme
The sugar component of cerebroside is A. Galactose B. Lactose C. Fructose D. Ribose
Reference range for total serum calcium is A. 0.6-1.4 mg/dl B. 9-11 mg/dl C. 15-40 mg/dl D. 70-110 mg/dl
Tumor marker elevated in liver cancer is A. Alpha feto protein B. Prostate specific antigen C. Ca 125 D. – HCG
Membrane fluidity is determined by A. Nature of fatty acids B. Glycosylation of integral proteins C. Membrane pumps D. Distribution of peripheral proteins
N3 of purine ring is donated by A. Asparate B. Glycine C. Glutamine D. Ammonia
Bile salts and bile pigments are excreted in urine in A. Incompatible blood transfusion B. Gilbert’s syndrome C. Carcinoma of head of pancreas D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Which of the following is a glycoside? A. Digitonin B. Mannitol C. Glucuronic acid D. Glucosamine
Which one of the following enzymes is specific to gluconeogenesis? A. Phosphohexose isomerase B. Pyruvate carboxylase C. Aldolase D. Enolase
Galactosyl transferase is marker for A. Cell membrane B. Mitochondria C. Lysosomes D. Golgi complex
Histones are rich in A. Glutamic acid and aspartic acid B. Glycine and serine C. Methionine and cysteine D. Arginine and Histidine
All the following lipids are present in the cell membranes EXCEPT A. Lecithin B. Cholesterol C. Sphingomyelin D. Triacylglycerol
The normal Anion gap is A. 4-8 mmol/L B. 10-14 mmol/L C. 16-20 mmol/L D. 22-26 mmol/L
Glucose level in plasma is increased by A. Gluconeogenesis B. Glycolysis C. Glycogen synthesis D. Glycosuria
Which of the following is a semi essential amino acid? A. Arginine B. Alanine C. Aspartic acid D. Glycine
Amphipathic lipids forming spherical vesicles consisting of one or more phospholipid bilayers is A. Micelle B. Liposome C. Emulsion D. Biomembrane
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for immortality of cancer cells? A. Telomerase B. RNA polymerase I C. DNA polymerase D. Helicase
Which of the following is a secretory immunoglobulin? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD
Transport of water through Aquaporins is an example of A. Simple diffusion B. Facilitated diffusion C. Primary active transport D. Secondary active transport
Optimum pH for alkaline phosphatase activity is A. 2-3 B. 4-5 C. 6-7 D. 9-10
Bile acid is derived from A. Cholesterol B. Glycerol C. Fatty acids D. Billirubin
Which of the following is a termination codon? A. AAG B. CAG C. CAA D. UAG
The product of glycolysis in erythrocytes is A. Lactate B. Pyruvate C. Urate D. Acetate
Which of the following vitamins is used in the electron transport chain? A. Riboflavin B. Pantothenic acid C. Pyridoxine D. Biotin
Koilonychia or spoon nail is seen in A. Iron deficiency anaemia B. Megaloblastic anaemia C. Scurvy D. Rickets
Which of the following is an exopeptidase? A. Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin C. Pepsin D. Carboxypeptidase
Which of the following food have high glycemic index? A. Potato chips B. Ice-cream C. Legumes D. Milk
In which of the following conditions is serum direct bilirubin elevated A. Physiological jaundice in the newborn B. Crigler – Najjar syndrome C. Gilbert’s syndrome D. Gall stones
Which of the following is an essential amino acid? A. Glycine B. Phenyl alanine C. Aspartic acid D. Serine
Which of the following is a derivative of cholesterol A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K
Which one of the following lipids is stored in adipose tissue? A. Triglyceride B. Phospholipid C. Cholesterol ester D. Free fatty acids
Inulin is a polymer of A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Mannose D. Galactose
The amino acid which do not allow formation of alpha helix is A. Glutamate B. Proline C. Tyrosine D. Histidine
Which of the following derivative of monosaccharide is used to reduce raised intra-cranial pressure? A. Sorbitol B. Dulcitol C. Ribitol D. Mannitol
Glucose and fructose are monosaccharide units of A. Lactose B. Maltose C. Sucrose D. Isomaltose
Ketone bodies are mainly produced in A. Brain B. Liver C. Erythrocytes D. Skeletal muscles
Nitrogenous base present both in DNA and RNA is A. Uracil B. Thymine C. Cytosine D. Xanthosine
An example for physiological uncoupler is A. 2,4 dinitophenol B. 2,4 dinitrocresol C. Chlorocarbonylcyanide phenylhydrazone D. Thermogenin
Enzyme defect in acute intermittent porphyria is A. ALA synthase B. ALA dehydratase C. PBG deaminase D. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
Deficiency enzyme causing alkaptonuria is A. Tyrosinase B. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase C. Homogentisate oxidase D. Dopa decarboxylase
The cholesterol lowering effect of statins is by inhibiting A. HMG CoA reductase B. HMG CoA lyase C. HMG CoA Synthase D. Cholesterol esterase
Which of the following is an epimer of glucose? A. Galactose B. Ribose C. Erythrose D. Glyceraldehyde
Which of the following mineral is best known for antioxidant role? A. Calcium B. Iron C. Phosphorus D. Selenium
Immunoglobulin which crosses placenta is A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD
Which of the following does not increase the absorption of calcium? A. Vitamin D B. Absence of bile salts C. Basic amino acids D. Acidity
Limiting amino acid in the protein gelatin is A. Lysine B. Threonine C. Tryptophan D. Methionine
Calories generated per gram of fat is A. 4 kcal B. 5 kcal C. 8 kcal D. 9 kcal
Reference interval for microalbumin in urine is A. 830-1100 mg / day B. 630-800 mg/ day C. 430-600 mg / day D. 30-300 mg /day
Swollen and spongy gums, and poor wound healing are the symptoms associated with deficiency of A. Ascorbic acid B. Thiamine C. Niacin D. Biotin
Closeness of a result to the true value is termed as A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Sensitivity D. Specificity
-1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with A. Wilson’s disease B. Cirrhosis of liver C. Emphysema D. Multiple myeloma
Which of the following amino acid in collagen is hydroxylated A. Glycine B. Tyrosine C. Threonine D. Lysine
The rate limiting enzyme in denovo cholesterol synthesis is A. Acetoacetyl-CoA synthase B. HMG CoA synthase C. HMG CoA reductase D. Mevalonate kinase QP CODE : 1024
Phospholipid deficiency in respiratory distress syndrome is A. Sphingomyelin B. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine C. Plasmalogen D. Lecithin
Which of the following compound used in the treatment of gout is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase? A. Probenicid B. Allopurinol C. Colchicine D. Acetaminophen
Nitrogenous base ethanolamine is present in A. Phosphatidyl inositol B. Plasmalogen C. Cephalin D. Lecithin
In Wilson’s disease copper accumulates in all of the following tissues EXCEPT A. Eyes B. Spleen C. Brain D. Liver
Methionine is a limiting amino acid in A. Cereals B. Maize and corn C. Pulses D. Tapioca
Urinary urobilinogen is increase in A. Hemolytic jaundice B. Hepatic jaundice C. Obstructive jaundice D. Physiological jaundice
Hyaluronic acid is seen in A. Synovial fluid B. Cartilage C. Cornea D. Bones
Reference interval for pH of urine is A. 3.5 to 4.5 B. 5.5 to 6.5 C. 7.5 to 8.5 D. 9.5 to 10.5
Which of the following is an example of enzyme which scavenges free radicals? A. Hexokinase B. Aconitase C. Fumarase D. Catalase
Which of the following contains iron? A. Ceruloplasmin B. Myoglobin C. Albumin D. Collagen
Specific dynamic action for protein is A. 5 B. 13 C. 18 D. 30
Hyponatremia is seen in A. Addison’s disease B. Cushing’s disease C. Primary hyperaldosteronism D. Steroid therapy
Normal serum level of albumin is A. 1.5 to 2.5 gm/dl B. 3.5 to 5 gm /dl C. 6 to 7.5 gm/dl D. 9 to 11 gm/dl
Number of calories given by one gram of carbohydrate is A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 9
Hormone insulin activates which of the following pathway A. Glycogenolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycolysis D. Lipolysis
Administration of diuretics cause loss of potassium, which may lead to A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
Northern blotting technique is used for identification of A. RNA B. DNA C. Protein D. Lipoprotein
All of the following causes hyponatremia EXCEPT A. Cushing’s disease B. Addison’s disease C. Renal tubular acidosis D. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Southern blotting technique is used for detection of A. DNA B. RNA C. Protein D. Lipoprotein
CA 125 is a tumor marker for A. Ovarian cancer B. Hepatoma C. Carcinoma breast D. Pheochrmocytoma
Anemia can be caused by the deficiency of all EXCEPT A. Pyridoxine B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin C D. Riboflavin
Which one of the following is an important urinary buffer? A. Bicarbonate B. Ammonia C. Phosphate D. Proteins
Administration of loop diuretics leads to A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
End product of catabolism of protein is? A. Urea B. Uric acid C. Creatinine D. Orotic acid
Normal biological reference interval for serum sodium is A. 96-105 meq/L B. 116-135 meq/L C. 136-145 meq/L D. 156-165 meq/L
The marker enzyme for microsomes is A. ATP synthase B. Cathepsin C. Glucose-6-phosphatase D. Lactate dehydrogenase
When pH falls by 1 unit, hydrogen ion concentration A. Remains same B. Increases by 2 times C. Increases by 7 times D. Increases by 10 times
Cancer cells are immortal due to the activity of A. Ligase B. Helicase C. Telomerase D. Topoisomerase
Diagnostic enzyme for acute pancreatitis is A. Creatine Kinase - MB B. Acid phosphatase C. Aldolase D. Lipase
Which of the following is an example for acute phase protein? A. Prothrombin B. C-reactive protein C. Lipoprotein A D. Thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)
Which of the following conditions is not associated with hyperuricemia? A. Gout B. Leukemia C. Psoriasis D. Xanthinuria
The following organs can utilize ketone bodies during starvation EXCEPT A. Liver B. Brain C. Heart D. Skeletal muscle
Which one of the following is a good source of vitamin E? A. Cod liver oil B. Wheat germ oil C. Green leafy vegetables D. Egg yolk
Positive nitrogen balance is seen in A. Pregnancy B. Malignancies C. Malnutrition D. Chronic illness
Which of the following antioxidant enzyme is selenium dependent? A. Glutathione peroxidase B. Glutathione reductase C. NADPH oxidase D. Catalase
The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid in bicarbonate buffer system is A. 20:1 B. 10:1 C. 4:1 D. 1:1
Which coenzyme is responsible for carboxylation reactions A. Biocytin B. FAD C. NAD D. TPP
Major intracellular cation is A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Calcium
Biological reference interval of serum creatinine in males is A. 0.1 to 0.5 mg/dl B. 0.8 to 1.2 mg/dl C. 1.5 to 2.2 mg/dl D. 2.4 to 3.1 mg/dl
Hexose Monophosphate (HMP) Shunt pathway is necessary for all the following EXCEPT A. Transparency of lens B. RBC membrane integrity C. Reduce methemoglobin level D. Production of 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) for erythrocytes
Epidermal growth factor (EGF) is produced by A. Platelets B. Monocytes C. Endothelial cells D. Fibroblasts
Clearance values of all of the following compounds are used to test glomerular function of kidney EXCEPT A. Glucose B. Creatinine C. Inulin D. Urea
Which of the following is a feature of respiratory acidosis? A. Decrease in Bicarbonate B. Increase in pCO2 C. Decreased hydrogen ion concentration D. Increase in rate and depth of respiration
The condition Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to deficiency of A. Selenium B. Iodine C. Zinc D. Manganese
Enzymes synthesized in inactive form is called as A. Coenzymes B. Apoenzymes C. Proenzymes D. Lysozymes
In which of the following phase of cell cycle DNA replication takes place A. G1 B. G2 C. S D. M
Acute intermittent porphyria
Enzyme defect in Von Gierke’s disease
Write IUMB classification of enzymes with examples and describe the factors affecting the enzyme activity.
Describe the breakdown of triglycerides, the mobilization of fatty acids. Discuss the beta oxidation of palmitic acid. Add a note on its energetics.
Sources, RDA and biochemical functions of vitamin D
How is heme synthesized. Add a note on its regulation
Describe the structural organization of proteins
Classify proteins based on their functions giving suitable examples
Define obesity. What are the metabolic changes and complications of obesity.
Sources, biochemical functions and deficiency manifestations of thiamine
Discuss the metabolism of chylomicrons
Describe the urea cycle and add a note on its regulation.
Classify phospholipids and enumerate their functions
Define competitive inhibition. Describe the features of competitive inhibition. Give three examples.
Importance of dietary fiber
Importance of HMP shunt pathway
Molecular basis and diagnosis of sickle cell anemia
Name the ketone bodies and describe their synthesis
Enumerate the clinical significance of HMP pathway.
Describe the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates
Mention two high energy compounds
Mention two causes of fatty liver
Mention two derivatives of cholesterol
Mention two important products obtained from Tyrosine
What is HbA1c. What is its significance
Mention the enzyme defects in homocystinuria
Mention two sulphur containing amino acids
Define glycemic index and name one food with low glycemic index
Give two examples for complete protein
Name any two biomarkers of myocardial infarction
Mention two lipotropic factors
Mention the importance of 2,3 BPG
Enzyme defect in galactosemia.
Name two conditions that cause ketosis
Name the semi essential amino acids.
Define atherosclerosis
Give biological reference range for serum triglycerides
Give biological reference range for serum albumin
Reference interval of serum creatinine.
Previous-year question papers. Question patterns derived from published papers for Biochemistry.



